Nursing Elites

1. What action should be taken to maintain the patency of a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)?

• A. Flush the catheter with heparin solution daily.
• B. Change the dressing at the insertion site daily.
• C. Use sterile technique when changing the dressing.
• D. Keep the insertion site dry at all times.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to use sterile technique when changing the dressing. This practice is essential for preventing infections that can compromise the patency of the PICC line. While flushing the catheter with heparin solution helps prevent clot formation, it does not directly maintain patency. Changing the dressing daily is important for hygiene but does not have a direct impact on catheter patency. Keeping the insertion site dry is crucial to prevent infections but does not specifically address patency maintenance.

2. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

3. A client who is postoperative has paralytic ileus. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?

• A. Absent bowel sounds with distention
• B. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain
• C. Normal bowel sounds with cramping
• D. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Paralytic ileus is a condition where there is a temporary paralysis of the bowel, leading to absent bowel sounds and abdominal distention. This occurs because the bowel is not functioning properly to propel contents, resulting in a lack of bowel sounds. Absent bowel sounds with distention are typical findings in paralytic ileus. Hyperactive bowel sounds with pain are more indicative of increased motility and are not expected in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds with cramping may be seen in other conditions, such as gastroenteritis. Diminished bowel sounds with tenderness are not typical findings in paralytic ileus.

4. The nurse has admitted a 4-year-old with the diagnosis of possible rheumatic fever. Which statement by the parent would cause the nurse to suspect an association with this disease?

• A. Our child had chickenpox 6 months ago.
• B. Strep throat went through all the children at the day care last month.
• C. Both ears were infected over 3 months ago.
• D. Last week both feet had a fungal skin infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rheumatic fever often follows a strep throat infection, which is why the nurse should suspect this association. Strep throat is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria, which can trigger an abnormal immune response leading to rheumatic fever. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chickenpox, ear infections, and fungal skin infections are not typically associated with rheumatic fever.

5. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not seeing the point of living anymore. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Recommend that the client seek spiritual guidance
• B. Request additional support from the client's family
• C. Tell the client that this is a normal response to grief
• D. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client expresses feelings of hopelessness or worthlessness, it is crucial for the nurse to assess for suicidal ideation. Asking the client directly if she plans to harm herself is essential to determine the level of risk and ensure appropriate interventions are implemented. Recommending spiritual guidance (Choice A) may not address the immediate safety concerns related to suicidal ideation. Requesting additional support from the client's family (Choice B) is not as direct in addressing the client's safety. While stating that the client's response is a normal part of grief (Choice C) may provide validation, it does not address the potential risk of harm to the client.

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