Nursing Elites

1. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

2. A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Encourage the client to practice deep breathing exercises.
• C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
• D. Obtain a peak flow reading.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.

3. A healthcare provider is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm before starting IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the provider implement to prevent infection?

• A. Thread the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site
• B. Shave excess hair from around the insertion site
• C. Cleanse the site with hydrogen peroxide before IV catheter insertion
• D. Palpate the site carefully just before inserting the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inserting the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter. This technique helps prevent introducing microbes into the bloodstream during the catheter insertion process. Shaving excess hair is unnecessary and can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection. Cleansing the site with hydrogen peroxide is outdated as it can cause tissue damage and delay wound healing. Palpating the site just before insertion can introduce bacteria from the skin surface into the insertion site, increasing the risk of infection.

4. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be

• A. Response to stimuli
• B. Bladder control
• C. Respiratory function
• D. Muscle strength

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.

5. When developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, what should the LPN/LVN remember about confusion in the elderly?

• A. It is not a normal part of aging.
• B. It often follows relocation to new surroundings.
• C. It is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease.
• D. It cannot be prevented or cured by adequate sleep alone.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with dementia, it is crucial to understand that confusion often arises after relocating to new surroundings. This change can disrupt familiar routines and trigger increased disorientation and confusion. Choice A is correct because confusion in the elderly is not a normal part of aging. Choice C is incorrect because confusion in dementia is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease, not just irreversible brain pathology. Choice D is incorrect because while adequate sleep is important for overall health, it alone cannot prevent or cure confusion associated with dementia.

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