Nursing Elites

1. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform nasal tracheal suctioning for a client. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the healthcare professional to take?

• A. Hold the suction catheter with the non-dominant hand.
• B. Apply suctioning for 20 to 30 seconds.
• C. Place the catheter in a clean and dry location for later use.
• D. Use surgical asepsis when performing the procedure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using surgical asepsis when performing nasal tracheal suctioning is crucial to prevent infection. Choice A is incorrect because the suction catheter should be held with the dominant hand to ensure better control and precision during the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as suctioning should be applied for no longer than 10 to 15 seconds to avoid trauma to the mucous membranes. Choice C is incorrect as the catheter should be disposed of properly after single-use to prevent cross-contamination and infection.

3. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

• A. During the admission process
• B. After the client is stabilized
• C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
• D. Just before the expected discharge date

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

4. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the nurse include as a developmental task for middle adulthood?

• A. The client evaluates their behavior after a social interaction.
• B. The client states they are learning to trust others.
• C. The client wishes to find meaningful friendships.
• D. The client expresses concerns about the next generations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in middle adulthood, individuals often shift their focus towards concerns related to the next generations. They reflect on their roles in guiding and supporting the younger generations. Choice A is incorrect as evaluating behavior after a social interaction is more relevant to self-awareness, which is not a specific developmental task for middle adulthood. Choice B, learning to trust others, is more commonly associated with early adulthood tasks related to forming intimate relationships. Choice C, wishing to find meaningful friendships, is more aligned with tasks associated with young adulthood and social connections.

5. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

• A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
• B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
• C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
• D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

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