Nursing Elites

1. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

• A. Atelectasis
• B. Renal calculi
• C. Pressure ulcers
• D. Joint contractures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum amylase of 200 U/L
• B. Serum lipase of 250 U/L
• C. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
• D. Serum calcium of 7.5 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, hypocalcemia (low serum calcium) is a critical finding that is associated with a poor prognosis and requires immediate attention. Serum amylase and lipase are typically elevated in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic inflammation, but they are not indicators of severity. Blood glucose levels may be elevated due to stress or underlying conditions but are not directly related to the severity of acute pancreatitis. Therefore, the most concerning value in this scenario is the low serum calcium level, which can have significant implications for the client's prognosis.

3. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

4. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

• A. When observed laterally, the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern.
• B. When observed posteriorly, the hips and shoulders form an 'S' pattern.
• C. The arms should be crossed over the chest or in the lap.
• D. The feet should be close together with toes pointed out.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

5. The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?

• A. An admission at the change of shifts with atrial fibrillation and heart failure - PN
• B. Client who had a major stroke 6 days ago - PN nursing student
• C. A child with burns who has packed cells and albumin IV running - charge nurse
• D. An elderly client who had a myocardial infarction a week ago - UAP

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.

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