HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
2. When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, what information should the nurse include in the handoff report?
- A. Frequency of previous vital sign measurements
- B. Number of family members who have visited
- C. Time of the client's last bath
- D. Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication.' When transferring a client to a long-term care facility, it is crucial to provide information on the effectiveness of the last dose of pain medication to ensure continuity of care and appropriate pain management. This information helps the receiving facility understand the client's current pain status and plan future interventions accordingly. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant for the handoff report in this scenario. The frequency of previous vital sign measurements may be important, but the immediate effectiveness of pain medication takes precedence. The number of family members who have visited and the time of the client's last bath are not as critical for the receiving facility's immediate care planning compared to pain management details.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to admit a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to perform first?
- A. Implement airborne precautions.
- B. Obtain a sputum culture.
- C. Administer antituberculosis medications.
- D. Recommend a screening test for close contacts.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial priority when admitting a client suspected of having pulmonary tuberculosis is to implement airborne precautions to prevent the spread of the disease. Airborne precautions include wearing a mask and placing the client in a negative pressure room. Obtaining a sputum culture is essential for confirming the diagnosis, but ensuring infection control measures come first to protect others. Administering antituberculosis medications is important but should be initiated after implementing necessary precautions. Recommending a screening test for close contacts is relevant but is a secondary concern compared to immediate infection control measures.
4. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
5. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
- C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.
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