HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
2. A client is about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. A healthcare professional is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to the client. The healthcare professional realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client:
- A. Is not feeling well
- B. Reports severe pain
- C. Has low blood pressure
- D. Is anxious
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Severe pain can be a significant distraction and impediment to the learning process. When a client is experiencing severe pain, their focus and attention are primarily directed towards managing the pain, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain new information effectively. Options A, C, and D, although important considerations in a healthcare setting, do not directly impact the client’s ability to learn in the same way that severe pain does. Not feeling well, low blood pressure, and anxiety are all factors that can be addressed or managed to facilitate learning, unlike severe pain which can significantly hinder the learning process.
3. A client with a terminal illness asks the nurse about what would happen if she arrived at the emergency department and had difficulty breathing, despite declining resuscitation in her living will. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?
- A. We will determine who the durable power of attorney for health care form has designated.
- B. We will apply oxygen through a tube in your nose.
- C. We will ask if you have changed your mind.
- D. We will insert a breathing tube while we evaluate your condition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct response is to provide oxygen through a tube in the client's nose. Oxygen therapy can offer comfort and support breathing without being considered resuscitative. Therefore, this intervention aligns with the client's wish to decline resuscitation. Option A is not directly related to addressing the client's immediate breathing difficulty. Option C does not acknowledge the client's living will decision. Option D involves a more invasive procedure that may go against the client's wishes to decline resuscitation.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling anxious, shaky, and weak. These findings are manifestations of which of the following complications?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Ketoacidosis
- D. Dawn phenomenon
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypoglycemia. In diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, and weakness due to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is high blood sugar levels and typically presents with symptoms like increased thirst and frequent urination. Ketoacidosis (choice C) is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high levels of ketones in the blood, leading to symptoms such as fruity breath and rapid breathing. The Dawn phenomenon (choice D) refers to an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar levels without an associated hypoglycemia during the night.
5. The client is being instructed on how to collect a clean catch urine specimen. Which sequence is appropriate for teaching?
- A. Void a little, clean the meatus, then collect specimen
- B. Clean the meatus, begin voiding, then catch urine stream
- C. Clean the meatus, then urinate into container
- D. Void continuously and catch some of the urine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct sequence for obtaining a clean catch urine specimen involves first cleaning the meatus to prevent contamination, then initiating voiding to catch the midstream urine. This method ensures that the sample is as uncontaminated as possible, making choice B the correct sequence. Option A is incorrect as cleaning the meatus should be done before voiding. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve catching a midstream urine sample. Option D is incorrect as it suggests catching urine throughout the entire voiding process, which may lead to contamination.
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