HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
2. The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?
- A. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk
- B. Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk
- C. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk
- D. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.
3. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?
- A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
- B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
- C. Morphine 2 mg IV
- D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.
4. By the second postoperative day, a client has not achieved satisfactory pain relief. Based on this evaluation, which of the following actions should the nurse take, according to the nursing process?
- A. Reassess the client to determine the reasons for inadequate pain relief.
- B. Wait to see whether the pain lessens during the next 24 hours.
- C. Change the plan of care to provide different pain relief interventions.
- D. Teach the client about the plan of care for managing pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Reassessing the client is crucial to identify the reasons for inadequate pain relief. This action allows the nurse to gather more information, evaluate the current pain management interventions, and make necessary adjustments to the care plan. Waiting for the pain to lessen without taking action delays appropriate pain management. Changing the plan of care without reassessment may lead to ineffective interventions. Teaching the client about the plan of care should be based on a reassessment of the current pain relief status to ensure tailored and effective pain management strategies.
5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
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