HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will
- A. Improve the quality of care
- B. Decrease staff turnover
- C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
- D. Improve team morale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.
2. A healthcare provider is planning to initiate IV therapy for an older adult client who requires IV fluids. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Insert the IV catheter without using a tourniquet.
- B. Use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to avoid injury to fragile skin or veins.
- C. Insert the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle.
- D. Use a smaller gauge catheter to reduce vein trauma.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When initiating IV therapy in older adults, it is essential to use the tourniquet minimally or not at all to prevent potential injury to fragile skin or veins. The use of a tourniquet can lead to increased venous pressure and potentially cause vein damage in older adult clients. Choice A is incorrect because inserting the IV catheter without a tourniquet can make locating veins more challenging. Choice C is incorrect as inserting the IV catheter at a 45-degree angle is not a recommended practice and can increase the risk of complications. Choice D is incorrect because using a smaller gauge catheter may not be appropriate for older adults who may require a larger gauge catheter for adequate fluid administration.
3. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
- A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
- B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
- C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
- D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
4. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
5. A client who is in hospice care complains of increasing amounts of pain. The healthcare provider prescribes an analgesic every four hours as needed. Which action should the LPN/LVN implement?
- A. Give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics.
- B. Administer analgesic medication as needed when the pain is severe.
- C. Provide medication to keep the client sedated and unaware of stimuli.
- D. Offer a medication-free period to allow the client to engage in daily activities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to implement is to give an around-the-clock schedule for administration of analgesics. This approach helps maintain consistent pain management by providing the medication regularly, preventing the pain from becoming severe. Choice B is incorrect because waiting for severe pain before administering the analgesic may lead to uncontrolled pain levels. Choice C is inappropriate as the goal of pain management in hospice care is to provide comfort without unnecessary sedation. Choice D is also incorrect as offering a medication-free period may result in inadequate pain control for the client.
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