HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
- B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
- C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.
2. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?
- A. Atelectasis
- B. Renal calculi
- C. Pressure ulcers
- D. Joint contractures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.
3. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?
- A. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge.
- B. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge.
- C. The nurse will assist the patient to ambulate in the hall 2 times a day.
- D. The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The goal 'The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge' is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, achievable, and individualized. This goal sets a clear target for the patient's mobility progress post-surgery. Choice A is too vague and does not provide a specific target distance or method of ambulation. Choice C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the patient's progress. Choice D lacks specificity in terms of distance or assistance required, making it less measurable and individualized compared to Choice B.
4. A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?
- A. ''I think I should take my pain medication more often since it is not controlling my pain.''
- B. ''Breathing faster will help me keep my mind off of the pain.''
- C. ''It might help me to listen to music while I'm lying in bed.''
- D. ''I don't want to walk today because I have some pain.''
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for managing mild pain. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the frequency of pain medication without consulting healthcare providers can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as distracting techniques like breathing faster may not address the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as avoidance of physical activity due to pain can hinder postoperative recovery.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
- C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
- D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, elevated serum potassium levels (hyperkalemia) are the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with kidney disease to prevent severe complications. While elevated creatinine (Choice A) and BUN (Choice C) are indicative of impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses a more immediate threat to the client's health. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) can be affected by chronic kidney disease but are not as acutely dangerous as severe hyperkalemia.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access