Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

2. A client has left lower atelectasis. In which of the following positions should the nurse place the client for postural drainage?

• A. Supine and low Fowler's position
• B. Right lateral in Trendelenburg position
• C. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated
• D. Prone with pillows under the extremities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postural drainage is a technique used to help remove secretions from specific lung segments. For left lower atelectasis, placing the client in the right lateral Trendelenburg position is most effective. This position helps target the affected area, using gravity to assist in drainage. Placing the client in a supine or low Fowler's position (Choice A) may not effectively target the affected area. Side lying with the right side of the chest elevated (Choice C) would not utilize gravity for optimal drainage. Placing the client prone with pillows under the extremities (Choice D) is not ideal for postural drainage of the left lower lobe.

3. A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

• A. Abnormal breath sounds
• B. Cyanosis of the lips
• C. Increasing pulse rate
• D. Pulse oximeter reading of 92%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.

4. When assessing a client's IV for infiltration, which finding would be unexpected for the nurse?

• A. The area around the infusion site feels warm to the touch.
• B. The infusion site is swollen and cool to the touch.
• C. The infusion line does not flush properly.
• D. There is no blood return in the infusion line.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Warmth around the infusion site is not an expected finding with infiltration. Infiltration typically presents with swelling and coolness due to the fluid leaking into the surrounding tissue. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because swelling, coolness, and difficulty flushing the line, as well as lack of blood return, are commonly associated with infiltration.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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