HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
- A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
- B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
- C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
- D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.
2. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.
3. A client is being taught about medications at discharge. Which statement should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the instructions?
- A. I can open the time-release capsule with the beads in it and sprinkle them on my oatmeal.
- B. If I am having difficulty swallowing, I will add the liquid medication to a prepared package of pudding.
- C. I can crush the enteric-coated pill if needed.
- D. I will eat two crackers with the pain pills.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Adding liquid medication to pudding can help with swallowing difficulties, demonstrating understanding of the instructions. Options A and C are incorrect as altering time-release capsules and enteric-coated pills is not recommended in medication administration. Option A is incorrect as time-release capsules should not be opened and sprinkled on food, affecting their efficacy. Option C is incorrect as crushing enteric-coated pills can affect their absorption. Option D is unrelated to medication administration and does not demonstrate understanding of the instructions.
4. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.
5. A nurse is in a public building when someone cries out, 'Help! I think he is having a heart attack!' The nurse responds to the scene and finds the unconscious adult lying on the floor. Another bystander has obtained an AED. The nurse's first action, after ensuring someone has called for EMS, should be to:
- A. Administer cardiac compressions
- B. Attach the AED pads to the client
- C. Check for a pulse
- D. Perform rescue breaths
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a scenario where a person is unconscious and there is an indication of a possible heart attack, the immediate priority for the nurse should be to administer cardiac compressions. This action helps maintain circulation and ensures oxygenated blood reaches vital organs until the AED is available. Checking for a pulse or performing rescue breaths may delay essential circulation support, and attaching AED pads should follow the initial step of administering compressions to maximize the chances of a successful resuscitation.
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