a goal for a client who has difficulty with self feeding due to rheumatoid arthritis is to use adaptive devices the nurse caring for the client should
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client with difficulty self-feeding due to rheumatoid arthritis should be referred to which member of the interprofessional care team to use adaptive devices?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Occupational therapist. Occupational therapists specialize in assisting clients with adaptive devices to enhance their ability to perform daily activities like self-feeding. They evaluate client needs and provide interventions to promote independence in activities of daily living. Choice A, Social worker, focuses on psychosocial support and community resources, not directly addressing the physical aspect of self-feeding difficulty. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is involved in direct patient care but lacks specialized training in adaptive devices. Choice C, Registered dietitian, primarily focuses on nutrition-related issues and may not have the expertise in adaptive devices and functional rehabilitation necessary for this client's self-feeding challenges.

2. An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.

3. The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.

4. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

5. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.

Similar Questions

When providing a bath, in which order will the nurse clean the body, beginning with the first area?
A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?
A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?
What action should the nurse take if she observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) soaking a client's foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed during a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client?
Which patient will lead the nurse to select a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a care plan?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses