Nursing Elites

1. A client has extracellular fluid volume deficit. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Postural hypotension
• B. Distended neck veins
• C. Dependent edema
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Postural hypotension is a common sign of extracellular fluid volume deficit due to decreased blood volume, leading to a drop in blood pressure upon standing. Distended neck veins, dependent edema, and bradycardia are not typically associated with extracellular fluid volume deficit. Distended neck veins are more indicative of fluid volume overload, dependent edema is a sign of fluid retention, and bradycardia is not a common finding in extracellular fluid volume deficit.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is receiving metformin (Glucophage). Which laboratory test should the LPN/LVN monitor while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Liver function tests
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Renal function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver function tests. While a client is taking metformin, monitoring liver function tests is crucial to assess for potential hepatic side effects. Metformin is primarily eliminated by the liver, and monitoring liver function tests helps in early detection of any liver-related complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A complete blood count (CBC) is not specifically required for monitoring metformin therapy. Serum electrolytes are not directly impacted by metformin, making it less relevant for monitoring this medication. Renal function tests are important for some other diabetes medications, but in the case of metformin, liver function tests take precedence due to its hepatic metabolism.

3. The nurse is discharging an adult woman who was hospitalized for 6 days for treatment of pneumonia. While the nurse is reviewing the prescribed medications, the client appears anxious. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the client to repeat the medication plan
• B. Encourage the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug
• C. Provide written instructions that are easy to follow
• D. Include a family member in the teaching session

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Including a family member in the teaching session is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this scenario. By involving a family member, the nurse can ensure that there is additional support and reinforcement of the medication plan. This can help the client and family better understand and adhere to the prescribed medications, reducing the client's anxiety. Instructing the client to repeat the medication plan (Choice A) may not address the client's anxiety effectively. Encouraging the client to take a PRN antianxiety drug (Choice B) should not be the first intervention without exploring other supportive measures. Providing written instructions (Choice C) alone may not offer the immediate support and reassurance needed for the anxious client.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling anxious, shaky, and weak. These findings are manifestations of which of the following complications?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Ketoacidosis
• D. Dawn phenomenon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypoglycemia. In diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, and weakness due to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is high blood sugar levels and typically presents with symptoms like increased thirst and frequent urination. Ketoacidosis (choice C) is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high levels of ketones in the blood, leading to symptoms such as fruity breath and rapid breathing. The Dawn phenomenon (choice D) refers to an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar levels without an associated hypoglycemia during the night.

5. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

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