Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Describe feelings about taking daily medications
• B. Take medications in the presence of the nurse
• C. Notify the nurse after self-medication is completed
• D. Keep a daily record of all medications taken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client undergoing direct observation therapy for TB is to take medications in the presence of the nurse. This approach ensures that the client is actually taking the medications as prescribed, reducing the risk of noncompliance. Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on ensuring the client physically takes the medications rather than discussing feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it does not ensure direct observation. Choice D is incorrect because self-reporting or keeping a record does not guarantee that the client is actually taking the medications.

2. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
• C. Heart block due to myocardial damage
• D. Blindness secondary to cataracts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.

3. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
• C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
• D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

4. The nurse notes that an older adult client has a moist cough that increases in severity during and after meals. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client to perform deep breathing exercises daily.
• B. Offer the client additional clear fluids frequently.
• C. Collect a sputum specimen immediately.
• D. Request a consultation to confirm dysphagia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The moist cough that worsens during and after meals suggests possible dysphagia, a condition related to swallowing difficulties. Requesting a consultation for dysphagia is essential for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. Encouraging the client to perform deep breathing exercises (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of dysphagia. Offering additional clear fluids (choice B) may not be appropriate for someone with swallowing difficulties. Collecting a sputum specimen (choice C) is not the priority in this scenario as the focus should be on identifying and managing the swallowing problem.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Presence of uremic frost
• D. Decreased mentation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.

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