Nursing Elites

1. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, at what apical pulse did the nurse decide to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the health care provider?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is a reason to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and its administration is based on heart rate parameters. A pulse rate below 90 beats/min indicates bradycardia. In pediatric patients, bradycardia below this threshold may be a sign of toxicity or potential adverse effects of digoxin, necessitating withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent pulse rates above the threshold for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child.

2. A 7-year-old child has an altered mental status, high fever, and a generalized rash. You perform your assessment and initiate oxygen therapy. En route to the hospital, you should be most alert for

• A. vomiting
• B. seizures
• C. combativeness
• D. respiratory distress

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Seizures are a common complication in children with high fever and altered mental status, indicating a risk of febrile seizures. While vomiting can occur with altered mental status, seizures are of higher concern due to the association with febrile illnesses in children. Combativeness may be a concern in some altered mental status cases but is not as common as seizures. Respiratory distress, although important, is not the primary concern in this scenario given the symptoms presented.

3. A child is being assessed by a nurse for suspected nephrotic syndrome. What clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Edema
• C. Hypertension
• D. Polyuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Edema is a hallmark clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. In nephrotic syndrome, there is increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to protein loss in the urine (proteinuria). The decrease in serum protein levels results in a reduced oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting from the intravascular space into the interstitial spaces, causing edema. Jaundice (choice A) is not typically associated with nephrotic syndrome. Hypertension (choice C) is more commonly seen in conditions like nephritic syndrome. Polyuria (choice D) is excessive urination and is not a prominent feature of nephrotic syndrome.

4. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.

5. Which of the following statements regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is correct?

• A. The chest should not be allowed to fully recoil in between compressions as this may impede venous return.
• B. Compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest.
• C. The chest should be compressed with one hand and a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2 should be delivered.
• D. A compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 should be delivered without pauses in compressions to deliver ventilations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement regarding 2-rescuer child CPR is to compress the chest with one or two hands to a depth equal to one-half to one third the diameter of the chest. This technique ensures effective chest compressions without causing excessive damage to the chest. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the chest to fully recoil between compressions is essential to facilitate optimal blood flow during CPR. Choice C is incorrect as it describes a compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2, which is not the recommended ratio for child CPR. Choice D is incorrect as a compression to ventilation ratio of 15:2 is not standard practice for child CPR, and pauses in compressions are necessary to provide ventilations effectively.

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