Nursing Elites

1. Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old child, at what apical pulse did the nurse decide to withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) elixir and notify the health care provider?

• A. 60 beats/min
• B. 70 beats/min
• C. 90 beats/min
• D. 100 beats/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, an apical pulse below 90 beats/min is a reason to withhold digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and its administration is based on heart rate parameters. A pulse rate below 90 beats/min indicates bradycardia. In pediatric patients, bradycardia below this threshold may be a sign of toxicity or potential adverse effects of digoxin, necessitating withholding the medication and informing the healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent pulse rates above the threshold for withholding digoxin in a 5-year-old child.

2. The nurse is caring for a 12-year-old boy with idiopathic thrombocytopenia. The nurse is providing discharge instructions about home care and safety recommendations to the boy and his parents. Which response indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. We should avoid aspirin and medications like ibuprofen.
• B. He can resume participation in football in 2 weeks.
• C. Swimming would be a great activity.
• D. Our son cannot take any antihistamines.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B indicates a need for further teaching because participation in contact sports like football should be avoided in children with idiopathic thrombocytopenia due to the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are correct. Avoiding aspirin and medications like ibuprofen helps prevent bleeding complications. Swimming is a safe physical activity that can be recommended. Antihistamines do not pose a significant risk in this case and can be used if needed.

3. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

4. A group of students is reviewing information about the endocrine system in infants and children. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they state:

• A. Endocrine glands begin developing during gestation.
• B. Endocrine glands are fully functional at birth.
• C. Infants may have difficulty regulating glucose and electrolytes.
• D. A child’s endocrine system plays a significant role in growth and development.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Infants may have difficulty regulating glucose and electrolytes due to their immature endocrine systems. This can lead to issues such as hypoglycemia and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because endocrine glands actually begin developing early in gestation, not just in the third trimester. Choice B is incorrect as endocrine glands are not fully functional at birth; they continue to mature and develop after birth. Choice D is incorrect as a child's endocrine system has a significant impact on growth and development through the secretion of hormones that regulate various processes in the body, but it does not specifically address the difficulty in regulating glucose and electrolytes seen in infants.

5. A 3-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate will be ordered?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sweat chloride test
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Sputum culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sweat chloride test is the gold standard diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis as it measures the concentration of chloride in sweat. In cystic fibrosis, there is an abnormal transport of chloride across epithelial membranes, leading to elevated sweat chloride levels. A chest X-ray may show characteristic changes in the lungs associated with cystic fibrosis, but it is not a definitive diagnostic test. Pulmonary function tests assess lung function but do not specifically diagnose cystic fibrosis. Sputum culture may identify respiratory infections but does not confirm the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.

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