Nursing Elites

1. Prior to surgery, written consent must be obtained. What is the nurse’s legal responsibility with regard to obtaining written consent?

• A. Validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted
• B. Explain the surgical procedure to the client and ensure the client comprehends before signing the consent form
• C. Ensure the client, not a family member, signs the surgical consent form
• D. Confirm that the surgical consent form is signed and included in the client's record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's legal responsibility in obtaining written consent is to validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted. This process ensures that the client has been comprehensively informed about the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives. Choice B is incorrect because it does not emphasize the validation of client understanding, which is crucial for informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as the client, not a family member, should provide consent unless specific circumstances dictate otherwise. Choice D is incorrect because although ensuring the consent form is signed and filed is important, it does not address the primary responsibility of confirming the client's comprehension and ensuring informed consent.

2. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. White blood cell (WBC) count
• B. Sputum culture and sensitivity
• C. Droplet precautions
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.

3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

4. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

• A. Moist mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

5. After administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI), which action should the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain
• B. Measure the client’s fluid intake and output
• C. Monitor the client’s serum electrolyte levels
• D. Auscultate for bowel sounds in all quadrants

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ask the client about gastrointestinal pain. The effectiveness of a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) is best evaluated by assessing the relief of gastrointestinal symptoms, such as heartburn, acid reflux, or stomach pain. These medications work by reducing the production of stomach acid, so improvement in these symptoms indicates the effectiveness of the PPI. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of a PPI. Measuring fluid intake and output, monitoring serum electrolyte levels, and auscultating for bowel sounds are important for assessing hydration status, electrolyte balance, and gastrointestinal motility, respectively. However, they are not specific to evaluating PPI effectiveness.

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