HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Sedimentation rate
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Anti–CCP antibodies
- D. Activated Clotting Time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.
2. Following the evacuation of a subdural hematoma, an older adult develops an infection. The client is transferred to the neuro intensive care unit with a temperature of 101.8 F (39.3 C) axillary, pulse of 180 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. What is the priority intervention to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Confusion
- B. Check neuro vital signs every 4 hours.
- C. Maintain intravenous access.
- D. Keep the suture line clean and dry.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority intervention for the client in this scenario is to maintain intravenous (IV) access. Given the client's condition with infection, elevated temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, it is crucial to ensure IV access for administering antibiotics, fluids, and other medications promptly. This can help manage the infection, stabilize hemodynamics, and support the client's hydration and medication needs. Checking neuro vital signs, although important, is secondary to addressing the immediate need for IV access. Keeping the suture line clean and dry is important for wound care but not the priority when dealing with a systemic infection and hemodynamic instability.
3. The healthcare provider believes that a client who frequently requests pain medication may have a substance abuse problem. Which intervention reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity?
- A. Administer the prescribed analgesic when requested
- B. Refer the client to a substance abuse program
- C. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to provide a placebo
- D. Document the frequency of medication requests
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering the prescribed analgesic when requested is the most appropriate intervention that reflects the healthcare provider's value of client autonomy over veracity. This action respects the client's right to manage their pain and avoids deception. Referring the client to a substance abuse program (Choice B) assumes a diagnosis without evidence and does not respect the client's autonomy. Collaborating to provide a placebo (Choice C) would involve deception, which goes against the value of veracity. Documenting the frequency of medication requests (Choice D) is important for the client's care but does not directly address the issue of respecting client autonomy over veracity.
4. The nurse is planning to assess a client's oxygen saturation to determine if additional oxygen is needed via nasal cannula. The client has bilateral below-the-knee amputations and weak, thread pedal pulses. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Document that an accurate oxygen saturation reading cannot be obtained
- B. Elevate the client's hands for five minutes prior to obtaining a reading from the finger
- C. Increase the oxygen based on the client's breathing patterns and lung sounds
- D. Place the oximeter clip on the earlobe to obtain the oxygen saturation reading
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Placing the oximeter clip on the earlobe is appropriate for clients with poor peripheral circulation, such as those with weak and thread pedal pulses due to bilateral below-the-knee amputations. This placement can provide a more accurate reading of oxygen saturation in such clients. Choice A is incorrect because alternative methods, such as earlobe placement, can be used to obtain accurate readings. Choice B is unnecessary and not related to obtaining an accurate oxygen saturation reading. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oxygen without assessing the oxygen saturation level first can be detrimental and is not based on evidence-based practice.
5. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?
- A. 8
- B. 9
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.
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