a client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue poor appetite general malaise and vague joint pain that improves mid morning the client has
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

2. While assessing a client four hours post-thoracentesis, the nurse is unable to auscultate breath sounds on the right side of the chest. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the client’s vital signs and respiratory effort. It is crucial to promptly detect any immediate complications or changes in the client's condition. Instructing cough and deep breathing exercises (choice A) can be considered after further assessment. Administering oxygen (choice C) should be based on assessment findings and healthcare provider's orders. While documenting the findings (choice D) is essential, it should not be the first action when a potential issue with breath sounds is detected.

3. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.

4. A client who is diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is having difficulty swallowing and articulating words. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with ALS experiencing difficulty swallowing and articulating words is to sit upright and flex the chin forward while swallowing. This position helps manage dysphagia associated with ALS by facilitating the swallowing process. Encouraging speaking slowly and articulating words (Choice A) may be helpful for speech clarity but does not address the swallowing issue. Positioning a communication board (Choice C) would not directly address the swallowing difficulty. Providing feeding utensils with large grip handles (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for managing dysphagia in ALS.

5. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

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