HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Sedimentation rate
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Anti–CCP antibodies
- D. Activated Clotting Time
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.
2. What nursing intervention is most important to implement after a client has completed a myelogram?
- A. Lie-sit-stand blood pressure measurement
- B. Abdominal assessment for distention and bowel sounds
- C. Neurovascular assessment of lower extremities
- D. Assessment of skin temperature and turgor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neurovascular assessment of the lower extremities. After a myelogram, it is crucial to monitor the neurovascular status to detect any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. This assessment helps in identifying early signs of vascular compromise or neurological deficits. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority after a myelogram. Lie-sit-stand blood pressure measurement is not directly related to post-myelogram care. Abdominal assessment and skin assessment are important but not the priority immediately after this procedure.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
- B. Administer supplemental oxygen
- C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
- D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.
4. An older female client living in a low-income apartment complex tells the home health nurse that she is concerned about her 81-year-old neighbor, a widow whose son recently assumed her financial affairs. Lately, her neighbor has become reclusive but is occasionally seen walking outside wearing only a robe and slippers. What response should the nurse offer?
- A. Explain that it is not unusual for older adults to suffer from dementia, which often causes such behaviors.
- B. Tell the client to talk to a healthcare provider before reporting suspicion of neglect to the authorities.
- C. Provide the number for Adult Protective Services so the client can report any suspicion of elder abuse.
- D. Encourage the client to avoid becoming involved in the neighbor’s problems for one’s protection.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to provide the number for Adult Protective Services so the client can report any suspicion of elder abuse. This action allows for an official investigation into possible elder abuse or neglect, ensuring the neighbor’s safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because assuming dementia without evidence is premature and could lead to overlooking potential abuse. Choice B is incorrect as the situation raises concerns about possible neglect or abuse, which should be reported promptly to the appropriate authorities. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the importance of ensuring the safety and well-being of the neighbor in need.
5. A client prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I need to avoid foods high in vitamin C.''
- B. ''I should eat a consistent amount of vitamin K each day.''
- C. ''I can eat as many leafy greens as I want.''
- D. ''I should not worry about any changes in my diet.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Consistency in vitamin K intake is crucial for clients on warfarin to maintain stable anticoagulation levels. Option A is incorrect as vitamin C does not directly interact with warfarin. Option C is incorrect because although leafy greens are high in vitamin K, excessive consumption can affect warfarin's effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as any changes in diet, particularly in vitamin K intake, can impact the efficacy of warfarin.
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