a client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue poor appetite general malaise and vague joint pain that improves mid morning the client has
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2024

1. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and notes that the output flow is 100ml less than the input flow. Which actions should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to change the client's position. Altering the client's position can help facilitate better fluid drainage in peritoneal dialysis, potentially resolving the issue without the need for more invasive interventions. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice A) is important but addressing the immediate drainage issue takes precedence. Checking blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels (Choice B) is not directly related to the observed output flow discrepancy. Irrigating the dialysis catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action as it is more invasive and should be considered only if repositioning does not resolve the issue.

3. To evaluate the medication’s effectiveness in a client with a respiratory tract infection, which laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: White blood cell (WBC) count. Monitoring the WBC count helps assess the overall response to infection and the effectiveness of the antibiotic. Sputum culture and sensitivity (choice B) are also important to confirm if the antibiotic is targeting the specific pathogen. Choices C and D, droplet precautions and protective environment, are not laboratory values but rather infection control measures that do not directly evaluate the medication's effectiveness in treating the infection.

4. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia is to use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. Azithromycin can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy. It is crucial to convey this information to prevent unintended pregnancies. Option A is incorrect as the partner should be screened for chlamydia, not HIV, in this case. Option B is not the most important information to provide as liver dysfunction is a rare side effect of azithromycin. Option C is irrelevant as grapefruit juice does not interact with azithromycin. Therefore, the priority information to convey is the importance of using dual contraception to prevent pregnancy.

5. The nursing staff on a medical unit includes a registered nurse (RN), practical nurse (PN), and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task should the charge nurse assign to the RN?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because supervising a newly hired graduate nurse during an admission assessment is a task that falls within the registered nurse's scope of practice. Registered nurses are responsible for overseeing and delegating tasks, especially to new staff, to ensure proper assessment and care delivery. Choices A, B, and D involve tasks that can be appropriately assigned to practical nurses or unlicensed assistive personnel as they are within their scope of practice. Transporting a client, administering oral analgesics, and completing focused assessments do not require the advanced knowledge and skills of a registered nurse.

Similar Questions

In preparing to administer a scheduled dose of intravenous furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure, the nurse notes that the client’s B-Type Naturetic peptide (BNP) is elevated. What action should the nurse take?
The nurse is performing a peritoneal dialysis exchange on a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?
A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?
When designing a program to provide primary preventative health care to a community-based healthcare system, which service should the nurse consider for inclusion in the program? Select all that apply.

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses