Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assessing a client with Addison's disease who is weak, dizzy, disoriented, and has dry oral mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and sunken eyes. Vital signs are blood pressure 94/44, heart rate 123 beats/minute, respiration 22 breaths/minute. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess extremity strength and resistance
• B. Report a sodium level of 132 mEq/L or mmol/L (SI units)
• C. Measure and record the cardiac QRS complex
• D. Check current finger stick glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client’s symptoms suggest possible adrenal crisis or hypoglycemia. Checking glucose is a priority to rule out hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention. The client is presenting with symptoms indicative of hypoglycemia, which can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Assessing extremity strength, reporting sodium levels, or measuring the cardiac QRS complex are not the most urgent actions in this scenario.

2. A group of nurses implemented a pilot study to evaluate a proposed evidence-based change to providing client care. Evaluation indicates successful outcomes, and the nurses want to integrate the change throughout the facility. Which action should be taken? (Select all that apply)

• A. Invite data review by the quality improvement department
• B. Submit a sentinel event report to the research committee
• C. Propose clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee
• D. Arrange in-service training through the educational department

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inviting data review by the quality improvement department is crucial to ensure the quality and efficacy of the proposed evidence-based change. This step allows for a comprehensive analysis of the data collected during the pilot study. Proposing clinical practice guidelines to the nursing committee is also essential for integrating the successful change into routine practice. In-service training through the educational department will help educate staff and ensure they are proficient in implementing the new practices. Submitting a sentinel event report to the research committee is not necessary in this scenario as the outcomes were successful, and there were no adverse events that would warrant such a report. Choices B, C, and D are not as relevant in this context compared to inviting data review by the quality improvement department, which is a crucial step in ensuring the success of the proposed change.

3. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Sedimentation rate
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Anti–CCP antibodies
• D. Activated Clotting Time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

4. A 37-year-old client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being treated for renal osteodystrophy. Which nursing diagnosis is most likely to be included in this client’s plan of care?

• A. High risk for infection related to subclavian catheter
• B. High risk of injury related to ambulation
• C. Knowledge deficit related to a high-protein diet
• D. Hygiene self-care deficit related to uremic frost

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Uremic frost is a condition in which urea and other waste products are excreted through the skin, leaving a powdery residue. This indicates poor hygiene and self-care, common issues in patients with CKD and renal osteodystrophy. Proper hygiene measures are essential to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be included in the plan of care for a CKD patient with renal osteodystrophy. Choice A is more related to a vascular access issue, choice B is more related to mobility concerns, and choice C is more related to dietary education.

5. The nurse is measuring the output of an infant admitted for vomiting and diarrhea. During a 12-hour shift, the infant drinks 4 ounces of Pedialyte, vomits 25 ml, and voids twice. The dry diaper weighs 105 grams. Which computer documentation should the nurse enter in the infant’s record?

• A. Subtract vomitus from 120 ml Pedialyte, then document 95 ml oral intake.
• B. Compare the difference between the infant’s current weight and admission weight.
• C. Document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml.
• D. Calculate the difference in wet and dry diapers and document 80 ml urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to document on the flow sheet that the infant voided twice and vomited 25 ml. This choice accurately reflects the need for accurate documentation of intake and output, essential for monitoring the infant's hydration status. Choice A is incorrect because the oral intake should not be calculated by subtracting vomitus from the oral intake. Choice B is incorrect because it does not address the specific documentation related to the infant's output. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on calculating urine output based on diaper weight, which is not the primary concern in this scenario.

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