HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Night sweats
- B. Weight loss
- C. Cough with bloody sputum
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cough with bloody sputum is a hallmark symptom of tuberculosis and is highly concerning as it indicates active disease. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) is associated with tuberculosis infection in the lungs. While night sweats and weight loss are common symptoms of tuberculosis, they are less specific than coughing with bloody sputum. Fatigue is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in various conditions and is not specific to tuberculosis.
2. A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?
- A. Trying to increase independence.
- B. Developing a sense of trust.
- C. Establishing a new identity.
- D. Attempting to master a skill.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.
3. The UAPs working on a chronic neuro unit ask the LPN/LVN to help them determine the safest way to transfer an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair. What method describes the correct transfer procedure for this client?
- A. Place the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side before moving.
- B. Assist the client to a standing position, then place the right hand on the armrest.
- C. Have the client place the left foot next to the chair and pivot to the left before sitting.
- D. Move the chair parallel to the right side of the bed, and stand the client on the right foot.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct method for transferring an elderly client with left-sided weakness from the bed to the chair involves moving the chair parallel to the right side of the bed and standing the client on the right foot. This technique provides a stable and safe transfer by utilizing the stronger side of the client to support the transfer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing the chair at a right angle to the bed on the client's left side, assisting the client to a standing position and placing the right hand on the armrest, and having the client pivot to the left before sitting do not address the client's left-sided weakness and may increase the risk of falls or injuries.
4. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
- A. Dystonia
- B. Akathisia
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
5. A client has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Provide a high-calorie diet.
- B. Encourage frequent rest periods.
- C. Restrict fluid intake.
- D. Increase iodine intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hypothyroidism is to encourage frequent rest periods. Hypothyroidism often leads to fatigue, making rest essential for recovery and symptom management. Providing a high-calorie diet is not necessary unless the client has gained weight due to hypothyroidism. Restricting fluid intake is not indicated unless there are specific medical reasons for it. Increasing iodine intake is not recommended for primary hypothyroidism, as it is typically caused by autoimmune thyroiditis or other factors rather than iodine deficiency.
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