Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected tuberculosis. Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Night sweats
• B. Weight loss
• C. Cough with bloody sputum
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cough with bloody sputum is a hallmark symptom of tuberculosis and is highly concerning as it indicates active disease. Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) is associated with tuberculosis infection in the lungs. While night sweats and weight loss are common symptoms of tuberculosis, they are less specific than coughing with bloody sputum. Fatigue is a nonspecific symptom that can be present in various conditions and is not specific to tuberculosis.

2. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rate
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Headache

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with a history of hypertension is a critical assessment finding as it may indicate heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other severe complications. The development of shortness of breath suggests that the client's condition may be rapidly deteriorating and requires immediate medical attention. Elevated blood pressure (150/90 mmHg) is concerning but not as acute as the potential complications associated with shortness of breath. An irregular heart rate and headache can also be symptoms of hypertension, but in this scenario, shortness of breath poses a higher risk of severe cardiovascular or respiratory issues.

5. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

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