the nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide lasix which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closel
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is being evaluated for dialysis. Which laboratory value would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium 6.2 mEq/L. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys struggle to regulate potassium levels, leading to hyperkalemia. A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L is dangerously high and can cause life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL may indicate anemia, which is common in chronic kidney disease but is not immediately life-threatening. Creatinine and BUN levels are markers of kidney function; although elevated levels indicate kidney impairment, they are not acutely life-threatening like severe hyperkalemia.

3. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

4. The nurse observes that a male client's urinary catheter (Foley) drainage tubing is secured with tape to his abdomen and then attached to the bed frame. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to secure the tubing to the client's gown instead of his abdomen. Securing the tubing to the client's abdomen can cause discomfort, trauma to the urethra, and increase the risk of infection. Attaching the drainage bag to the bed frame can lead to tension on the catheter, increasing the risk of dislodgement or trauma. Raising the bed does not address the issue of incorrect tubing securing. Observing the appearance of urine is important but secondary to ensuring proper tubing attachment.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a characteristic symptom of left-sided heart failure. In this condition, the heart's inability to effectively pump blood forward causes blood to back up into the lungs, leading to fluid accumulation. This fluid accumulation results in pulmonary congestion, manifesting as shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Peripheral edema (choice A) is more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure, where fluid accumulates in the extremities. Jugular vein distention (choice B) is a sign of increased central venous pressure and is more indicative of right-sided heart failure. Weight gain (choice D) can be a general symptom of heart failure due to fluid retention, but shortness of breath is specifically related to left-sided heart failure.

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