HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse’s immediate intervention? The client who is...
- A. Short of breath after a shower and has a hemoglobin of 8 grams
- B. Bleeding from a finger stick and has a prothrombin time of 30 seconds
- C. Febrile and has a WBC count of 14,000/mm3
- D. Trembling and has a glucose level of 50 mg/dL
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
2. The nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which clinical finding is characteristic of this condition?
- A. Pursed-lip breathing
- B. Hyperresonance on percussion
- C. Bradycardia
- D. High-pitched inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing is a characteristic finding in clients with COPD. It helps keep the airways open during exhalation, acting as a compensatory mechanism to prevent airway collapse, which is common in COPD. Hyperresonance on percussion is typically found in conditions like emphysema, which is a component of COPD but not characteristic of the overall disease. Bradycardia is not typical in COPD; instead, clients often exhibit tachycardia due to chronic hypoxemia. High-pitched inspiratory crackles are more commonly associated with conditions like pneumonia, not COPD.
3. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?
- A. Decreased sexual libido
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Quickening
- D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.
4. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old male client who is beginning to form a decubitus ulcer at the coccyx. Which intervention will be most helpful in preventing further development of the decubitus ulcer?
- A. Encourage the client to eat foods high in protein
- B. Assess the client for daily range of motion exercises
- C. Teach the family how to perform sterile wound care
- D. Ensure the IV fluids are administered as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Encouraging the client to eat foods high in protein is crucial in preventing further development of decubitus ulcers as high protein foods support tissue repair and skin integrity. Adequate protein intake is essential for wound healing. Assessing the client for daily range of motion exercises is important for preventing complications related to immobility, but it may not directly address the prevention of decubitus ulcers. Teaching the family how to perform sterile wound care is significant for wound management but may not be the most effective intervention to prevent further development of decubitus ulcers. Ensuring IV fluids are administered as prescribed is essential for maintaining hydration status but is not the most relevant intervention for preventing decubitus ulcers.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes erythromycin (Ilosone) 300 mg PO QID. The medication label reads, 'Ilosone 100mg/5mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer at each dose?
- A. 15 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 20 mL
- D. 5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume of medication needed for a 300 mg dose of Ilosone (100mg/5mL), we set up a proportion: 100 mg is to 5 mL as 300 mg is to x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get x = (300*5)/100 = 15 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 15 mL at each dose. Choice B (10 mL) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation based on the medication concentration. Choices C (20 mL) and D (5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume required for the prescribed dose.
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