HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse administer immediately under doctor's orders?
- A. Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting
- B. High-flow oxygen
- C. Intravenous fluids
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting. Administering aspirin is crucial in the immediate management of a myocardial infarction as it helps prevent further blood clot formation, which is a key component in the treatment and prevention of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy (Choice B) is often provided, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in reducing clot formation. Intravenous fluids (Choice C) may be needed but are not the immediate priority in this situation. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is commonly used for chest pain relief in myocardial infarction but is not the first medication to be administered in this scenario.
2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone abdominal surgery. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Absence of bowel sounds
- B. Mild abdominal distention
- C. Drainage of serosanguineous fluid from the incision
- D. Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain may indicate complications such as peritonitis, bowel perforation, or internal bleeding. These conditions are serious and require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or deterioration. Absence of bowel sounds, mild abdominal distention, and drainage of serosanguineous fluid are common findings after abdominal surgery and may not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Severe abdominal pain post-surgery should always be reported promptly as it could signify a life-threatening situation that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
3. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
- C. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
- D. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.
4. What is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space?
- A. Filtration
- B. Diffusion
- C. Osmosis
- D. Active transport
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Osmosis. Osmosis is the homeostatic cellular transport mechanism that moves water from a hypotonic to a hypertonic fluid space to maintain cellular balance. In osmosis, water moves across a semi-permeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration (hypotonic) to an area of high solute concentration (hypertonic). This process helps regulate the water content inside cells. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Filtration involves the movement of solutes and solvents through a membrane due to a pressure difference, diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of high concentration to low concentration, and active transport requires energy to move substances against their concentration gradient.
5. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Take the medication at the same time every day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.
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