HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse administer immediately under doctor's orders?
- A. Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting
- B. High-flow oxygen
- C. Intravenous fluids
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting. Administering aspirin is crucial in the immediate management of a myocardial infarction as it helps prevent further blood clot formation, which is a key component in the treatment and prevention of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy (Choice B) is often provided, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in reducing clot formation. Intravenous fluids (Choice C) may be needed but are not the immediate priority in this situation. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is commonly used for chest pain relief in myocardial infarction but is not the first medication to be administered in this scenario.
2. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
- B. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
- C. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
- D. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.
3. How should the nurse respond to an older male client who states that his religion does not permit him to bathe daily?
- A. Review the importance of hygienic measures for improved health
- B. State that the healthcare provider has prescribed a bath today
- C. Offer the client several choices of times to bathe during the day
- D. Request that the client clarify his religious beliefs about bathing
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to offer the client several choices of times to bathe during the day. This approach respects the client's religious beliefs while ensuring that hygienic practices are still maintained. By providing options, the nurse can work together with the client to find a solution that aligns with both his beliefs and his health needs. Choice A is incorrect because solely reviewing the importance of hygiene may not address the client's specific religious concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it disregards the client's beliefs and autonomy. Choice D is not the best approach as it may come off as confrontational or dismissive of the client's beliefs, rather than working collaboratively to find a suitable solution.
4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia.
- B. Hyponatremia.
- C. Hypocalcemia.
- D. Hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.
5. A postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Call the healthcare provider
- C. Prepare for chest x-ray
- D. Assess the client's lung sounds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assessing the client's lung sounds is the most appropriate initial action when a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. This step helps the nurse evaluate the respiratory status and detect abnormalities such as decreased breath sounds or crackles, which could indicate a serious condition like a pulmonary embolism. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the lung sounds to ensure the appropriate intervention. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice B) or preparing for a chest x-ray (Choice C) can be important subsequent actions based on the findings from the lung sound assessment, but they are not the first priority in this situation.
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