HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client presents to the emergency department with symptoms of a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse administer immediately under doctor's orders?
- A. Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting
- B. High-flow oxygen
- C. Intravenous fluids
- D. Nitroglycerin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Aspirin to prevent further blood clotting. Administering aspirin is crucial in the immediate management of a myocardial infarction as it helps prevent further blood clot formation, which is a key component in the treatment and prevention of myocardial infarction. Oxygen therapy (Choice B) is often provided, but aspirin takes precedence due to its role in reducing clot formation. Intravenous fluids (Choice C) may be needed but are not the immediate priority in this situation. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is commonly used for chest pain relief in myocardial infarction but is not the first medication to be administered in this scenario.
2. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
- A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
- B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
- C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
- D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.
3. In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners
- B. 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship
- C. 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales and smokes drugs
- D. 45-year-old who has received two blood transfusions in the past 6 months
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.
4. The nurse is in charge of a Nursing unit in a long-term care facility. Which task is best for the nurse to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is helping with the care of several clients?
- A. Measure the amount of a client's residual urine after voiding
- B. Cleanse the perineal area of a client with urinary incontinence
- C. Insert a straight catheter to obtain a urine specimen for culture
- D. Provide catheter care for a client with a suprapubic catheter
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because cleaning the perineal area is a task within the scope of practice for unlicensed assistive personnel (UAPs) and is crucial for preventing infections. Choice A involves a more complex task that requires a healthcare provider's assessment. Choice C involves a sterile procedure that should be performed by licensed staff. Choice D involves specific care for a client with a catheter that exceeds the UAP's scope of practice.
5. A client requires application of an eye shield to the right eye. What should the nurse do in order to apply tape to anchor the shield most effectively?
- A. Place tape from the cheek to the forehead
- B. Secure tape from the nose to the ear
- C. Attach tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead
- D. Use circular bandaging around the head
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct way to apply tape to anchor an eye shield effectively is to attach the tape from the lower eyelid to the upper forehead. This method provides stability for the shield without putting pressure on the eye itself, thus helping to protect the eye. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taping from the cheek to the forehead, securing tape from the nose to the ear, or using circular bandaging around the head may not provide the necessary stability and protection required for the eye shield.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access