Nursing Elites

1. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?

• A. Covering the wound with a dry dressing
• B. Using hydrogen peroxide soaks
• C. Leaving the area open to dry
• D. Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.

2. When caring for a client with diarrhea due to shigellosis, what precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Wear a gown when caring for the client.
• B. Wear gloves only.
• C. Use standard precautions only.
• D. Wear a mask and face shield.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear a gown when caring for the client. Shigellosis is highly contagious, and contact precautions are essential to prevent the spread of infection. Wearing gloves alone may not provide adequate protection as the client's diarrhea can contain infectious pathogens that can easily spread. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, but specific precautions for shigellosis require wearing a gown to protect against contact with infectious material. Wearing a mask and face shield are not necessary for shigellosis, as the primary mode of transmission is through the fecal-oral route, and these precautions are not indicated for this type of transmission.

3. The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?

• A. An admission at the change of shifts with atrial fibrillation and heart failure - PN
• B. Client who had a major stroke 6 days ago - PN nursing student
• C. A child with burns who has packed cells and albumin IV running - charge nurse
• D. An elderly client who had a myocardial infarction a week ago - UAP

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.

4. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

5. The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?

• A. Inadequate blood flow leads to decreased tissue ischemia.
• B. Patients with limited caloric intake develop thicker skin.
• C. Pressure reduces circulation to affected tissue.
• D. Verbalization of skin care needs is decreased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.

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