HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
- B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
- C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
- D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.
2. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?
- A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
- B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
- C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
- D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.
3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
- C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
- D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Crackles in the lungs
- C. Jugular vein distention
- D. Hepatomegaly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles in the lungs indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of left-sided heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, impairing gas exchange and potentially leading to respiratory distress. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory function. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: Peripheral edema is a common finding in heart failure but may not be as acutely concerning as pulmonary congestion. Jugular vein distention is associated with right-sided heart failure, not left-sided heart failure. Hepatomegaly is often seen in liver conditions and right-sided heart failure, not specifically left-sided heart failure.
5. The nurse is caring for a 17-month-old child with acetaminophen poisoning. Which laboratory reports should the nurse review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the drug's metabolism in the liver. Monitoring liver enzymes such as AST and ALT is crucial as they indicate liver function and damage. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice A) are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts (Choice B) are not directly related to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels (Choice C) assess kidney function, but liver enzymes are more specific for evaluating liver damage in acetaminophen poisoning.