Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
• B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
• C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
• D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

2. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Ask about any past history of drug abuse or addiction.
• B. Measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration.
• C. Compress the infiltrated tissue to measure the degree of edema.
• D. Evaluate the extent of ecchymosis over the forearm area.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client about self-administering heparin.

• A. Administer medication in the abdomen.
• B. Administer medication in the thigh.
• C. Administer medication in the upper arm.
• D. Administer medication in the buttock.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is typically administered in the abdomen for self-injection to avoid muscle tissue and for better absorption. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen provides a larger area for injection and is usually recommended for heparin administration. Administering heparin in the thigh, upper arm, or buttock may not be as effective or safe as the abdomen due to variations in absorption rates and potential risks associated with muscle injection.

4. A client who is unstable and requires frequent vital signs has an electronic blood pressure machine automatically measuring his blood pressure every 15 min. However, the machine is reading the client’s blood pressure at more frequent intervals, and the readings are not similar. The nurse checks the machine settings and observes the additional readings, but the problem continues. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?

• A. Notify the manufacturer
• B. Disconnect the machine, and measure the blood pressure manually every 15 min
• C. Adjust the machine settings again
• D. Ignore the extra readings

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to disconnect the electronic blood pressure machine and measure the client's blood pressure manually every 15 minutes. Given that the machine is malfunctioning and providing inconsistent readings, relying on manual measurements ensures accuracy and maintains the quality of care. Notifying the manufacturer (Choice A) may be necessary in the long run, but the immediate concern is the accuracy of the vital signs. Adjusting the machine settings again (Choice C) without resolving the underlying issue would not address the problem. Ignoring the extra readings (Choice D) could lead to incorrect assessment and compromise patient care. Therefore, the best course of action is to disconnect the machine and opt for manual blood pressure measurements until the issue is resolved.

5. A client had a mastectomy 6 months ago and expresses a decreased desire for sexual relations, stating “My body is so different now.” Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Really, you look just fine to me. There’s no need to feel undesirable.”
• B. “I’m interested in finding out more about how your body feels to you.”
• C. “Consider an afternoon at a spa; a facial will make you feel more attractive.”
• D. “It’s still too soon to expect to feel normal. Give it a little more time.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, the appropriate response is to reflect on the client’s feelings and explore their experience. Choice A may unintentionally dismiss the client's concerns by not addressing their emotional needs. Choice C suggests a spa treatment as a solution without addressing the underlying emotional issues. Choice D implies that the client's feelings will resolve with time, which may not be helpful in addressing the client's current emotional state.

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