Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
• B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
• C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
• D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

2. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Heart murmur
• C. Macular rash
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

3. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

4. A nurse is collecting a blood pressure reading from a client who is sitting in a chair. The nurse determines that the client's BP is 158/96 mmHg. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ensure that the width of the BP cuff is appropriate for the client's arm circumference.
• B. Reposition the client supine and recheck their BP.
• C. Recheck the client's BP and measure their other arm for comparison.
• D. Request that another nurse check the client's BP in 30 minutes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse obtains a blood pressure reading that is elevated, the appropriate action is to recheck the client's BP and measure the other arm for comparison. This step helps ensure accuracy by ruling out errors like improper cuff size, positioning, or equipment malfunction. Repositioning the client supine is not necessary unless the client shows signs of distress or symptoms. Ensuring the appropriate cuff width is important for accurate readings but does not address the immediate need to confirm the current BP. Requesting another nurse to check the BP in 30 minutes delays immediate action and does not address the need for verification and comparison of the current reading.

5. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is receiving IV therapy and reports pain in the arm, chills, and 'not feeling well.' The nurse notes warmth, edema, induration, and red streaking on the client’s arm close to the IV insertion site. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Obtain a specimen for culture.
• B. Apply a warm compress.
• C. Administer analgesics.
• D. Discontinue the infusion.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Discontinuing the infusion is the first step in addressing potential complications such as phlebitis or infection. It is crucial to prevent further infusion-related damage by stopping the source of the issue. Obtaining a specimen for culture (Choice A) can be considered later to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection. Applying a warm compress (Choice B) or administering analgesics (Choice C) may provide comfort but do not address the underlying issue of infection or phlebitis, which requires immediate intervention by discontinuing the infusion.

Similar Questions