Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
• B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
• C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
• D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.

2. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
• B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
• C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
• D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) IV 100 mL over 15 min. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 400 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 300 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 100 mL over 15 min, the IV pump should be set to deliver 400 mL/hr. This calculation is based on the concept that if 100 mL is given in 15 minutes, to find out how many milliliters are given in an hour, you would multiply by 4 (since 15 minutes is a quarter of an hour). Therefore, 100 mL x 4 = 400 mL per hour. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate required to administer 100 mL over 15 minutes.

4. Which of the following manifestations confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students?

• A. Scratching the head more than usual
• B. Flakes evident on a student's shoulders
• C. Oval pattern occipital hair loss
• D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair shaft are nits, which are a definitive sign of pediculosis capitis (head lice). A: Scratching the head more than usual is a common symptom but not confirmatory of head lice infestation. B: Flakes evident on a student's shoulders may indicate dandruff or dry scalp, not necessarily head lice. C: Oval pattern occipital hair loss is not a typical manifestation of pediculosis capitis.

5. When assessing a client's skin as part of a comprehensive physical examination, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds
• B. 1+ pitting edema in both feet
• C. Pale nail beds in both hands
• D. Thick skin on the soles of the feet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This finding is considered normal and indicates good peripheral perfusion. Pitting edema (choice B) and pale nail beds (choice C) are abnormal findings that may suggest underlying health issues. Thick skin on the soles of the feet (choice D) is not an expected normal finding during a skin assessment and could be indicative of a callus or other skin condition.

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