Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a med-surg unit is providing care for four clients. The nurse should identify which of the following situations as an ethical dilemma?

• A. A surgeon who removed the wrong kidney during a surgical procedure refuses to take responsibility for her actions
• B. A client who has a new colostomy refuses to follow instructions from the ostomy therapist because she 'doesn’t like him'
• C. The family of a client who has a terminal illness asks that the provider not disclose the diagnosis to the client
• D. A client who has Crohn’s disease reports that his prescription drug plan will not cover his medications

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is an ethical dilemma when the family of a client with a terminal illness asks healthcare providers not to inform the client of their diagnosis. This situation poses a conflict between respecting the client's right to know the truth about their condition (autonomy and truth-telling principles) and honoring the family's wishes. Choices A, B, and D do not present ethical dilemmas. Choice A involves professional accountability and responsibility, Choice B involves a client's personal preference, and Choice D involves financial challenges.

2. While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?

• A. Crackles
• B. Rhonchi
• C. Friction rub
• D. Normal breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.

3. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Positive bowel sounds
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

4. When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired, what should the nurse do?

• A. Face the client and speak slowly
• B. Speak loudly and clearly
• C. Use written communication only
• D. Avoid using gestures or body language

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When communicating with a client who is hearing impaired, it is important to face the client and speak slowly. This helps the individual lip-read and understand the communication more easily. Speaking loudly can distort speech and make it harder for the person to understand. Written communication may not always be practical or accessible for the client, especially in real-time interactions. Gestures and body language can actually aid in communication by providing visual cues and context. Therefore, the best approach is to face the client, speak clearly at a moderate pace, and use gestures and body language to enhance understanding.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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