a client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation which assessment finding o
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HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

2. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.

3. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.

4. Several months after a foot injury, an adult woman is diagnosed with neuropathic pain. The client describes the pain as severe and burning and is unable to put weight on her foot. She asks the nurse when the pain will 'finally go away.' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Assist the client in developing a goal of managing the pain.' In cases of chronic neuropathic pain, complete resolution is often not achievable. Therefore, the most appropriate approach is to help the client develop strategies to manage the pain effectively. Choice A is incorrect because it may give false hope of immediate resolution, which is unlikely with neuropathic pain. Choice C is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's need for pain management. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on functional ability assessment, which is not the priority when addressing the client's pain concerns.

5. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.

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