Nursing Elites

1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

2. What is the primary focus of postoperative nursing care for the client with colon trauma?

• A. Monitoring for elevated coagulation studies
• B. Observation for and prevention of fistulas
• C. Monitoring for signs of hyponatremia
• D. Observation for and prevention of infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Observation for and prevention of infection. Postoperative nursing care for a client with colon trauma primarily focuses on preventing infections. Clients with colon trauma are at high risk for infections due to the disruption of the intestinal barrier. Monitoring for signs of infection, maintaining proper wound care, administering antibiotics as prescribed, and implementing strict aseptic techniques are essential in preventing postoperative infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because elevated coagulation studies, fistulas, and hyponatremia are not the primary concerns in the immediate postoperative period for a client with colon trauma.

3. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Review of recent laboratory test results shows that the client’s serum magnesium level has decreased below the normal range. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, what nursing action is most important?

• A. Check the visual difficulties
• B. Note the most recent hemoglobin level
• C. Assess for hand and joint pain
• D. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the rhythm on the telemetry monitor. Decreased magnesium levels can lead to cardiac issues, such as arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm is crucial in this situation. Checking visual difficulties (choice A) is not directly related to the potential cardiac effects of low magnesium levels. Noting the hemoglobin level (choice B) and assessing for hand and joint pain (choice C) are not the priority when dealing with low magnesium levels and possible cardiac complications.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
• B. Administer supplemental oxygen
• C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
• D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.

5. The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Wake all the clients and instruct them to go to the dining area for medication administration
• B. Explain to the clients that it will be necessary to cooperate until another RN arrives
• C. Ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened so both nurses are available
• D. Allow the clients to sleep until a third staff person can assist with unit activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.

Similar Questions