a client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation which assessment finding o
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

2. The mother of a teenager is told that her son has recently been found stealing from other students at school. The mother's response is, 'I cannot think about that today.' The nurse determines that this mother is using which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Suppression. Suppression involves a conscious effort to avoid dealing with distressing thoughts or feelings. In this case, the mother is consciously choosing not to think about her son's behavior. Choice B, Repression, involves unconsciously blocking out distressing thoughts or feelings. Choice C, Sublimation, is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable behaviors, which is not demonstrated in this scenario. Choice D, Undoing, is a defense mechanism where a person tries to undo or reverse a negative thought or action by performing a contrary behavior, which is not applicable here.

3. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.

4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.

5. The nurse is teaching a male adolescent recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus (DM) about self-injecting insulin. Which approach is best for the nurse to use to evaluate the effectiveness of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Reviewing the glycosylated hemoglobin level after a few months is the best approach to evaluate the effectiveness of teaching self-injection. This measurement provides an objective indicator of the adolescent's glucose control over time, reflecting the impact of insulin self-administration education. Choices A, B, and D do not directly assess the long-term impact of the teaching on the adolescent's diabetes management.

Similar Questions

A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?
After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?
An adult male who admits to abusing IV drugs obtains the results of HIV testing. When informed that the results are positive, he states that he does not want his wife to know. What action should the nurse take?
Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?
When assessing a client with acute asthma, the nurse is most likely to obtain which finding?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses