Nursing Elites

1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

2. A client presents to the healthcare provider with fatigue, poor appetite, general malaise, and vague joint pain that improves mid-morning. The client has been using over-the-counter ibuprofen for several months. The healthcare provider makes an initial diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which laboratory test should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Sedimentation rate
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Anti–CCP antibodies
• D. Activated Clotting Time

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sedimentation rate. Sedimentation rate, Anti–CCP antibodies, and C-reactive protein are commonly used laboratory tests to indicate inflammation and help diagnose rheumatoid arthritis. An elevated sedimentation rate is a nonspecific indicator of inflammation in the body, which is often seen in RA. White blood cell count is not specific for RA and is not typically significant in the diagnosis. Anti–CCP antibodies are specific to RA and are useful in confirming the diagnosis. Activated Clotting Time is not relevant to the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis as it is not specific to this condition.

3. In preparing a care plan for a client admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective coping related to uncertainty of disease progression
• B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired swallowing reflex
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to ascending paralysis
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to asymmetrical descending paralysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem for a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome due to the potential risk of respiratory failure. As the paralysis ascends, it can affect the muscles needed for breathing, leading to respiratory compromise. Addressing this problem promptly is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and failure. Choices A, B, and D are also important nursing problems in Guillain-Barre syndrome, but ensuring effective breathing takes precedence over coping, nutrition, and mobility due to the immediate threat it poses to the client's life.

4. After a motor vehicle collision, a client is admitted to the medical unit with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis). Which prescription should the nurse implement?

• A. Determine serum glucose levels
• B. Withhold potassium additives to IV fluids
• C. Give IV corticosteroid replacement
• D. Prepare to initiate IV vasopressors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with acute adrenal insufficiency (Addisonian crisis) following a motor vehicle collision, the priority intervention is to administer IV corticosteroid replacement. This is crucial to manage the crisis by replacing the deficient cortisol. Determining serum glucose levels (Choice A) may be important but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Withholding potassium additives to IV fluids (Choice B) is not indicated and may exacerbate electrolyte imbalances. Initiating IV vasopressors (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency and should be reserved for managing hypotension that is unresponsive to corticosteroid therapy.

5. Two weeks following a Billroth II (gastrojejunostomy), a client develops nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after every meal. When the nurse develops a teaching plan for this client, which expected outcome statement is the most relevant?

• A. Describes a schedule for antacid use in combination with other prescribed medications
• B. Selects a pattern of small meals interspersed with fluid intake
• C. Commits to engaging in a variety of stress reduction techniques
• D. Expresses a commitment to decrease nicotine intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The symptoms described are indicative of dumping syndrome, a common complication following a Billroth II procedure. Dumping syndrome presents with symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, and diaphoresis after meals. To manage these symptoms effectively, the client should opt for small, frequent meals and avoid consuming fluids along with meals. Choice A is inaccurate because antacid use does not directly address the symptoms of dumping syndrome. Choice C is irrelevant as stress reduction techniques are not the primary intervention for dumping syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the symptoms experienced by the client, making it an inappropriate choice.

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