a client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation which assessment finding o
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HESI CAT Exam Quizlet

1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

2. Following a thyroidectomy, a client experiences tetany. The nurse should expect to administer which intravenous medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a thyroidectomy, tetany can occur due to hypoparathyroidism, leading to low calcium levels. Therefore, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate intravenously to raise the calcium levels. Choice A, Sodium iodide solution, is incorrect as it is used for thyroid conditions, not for treating tetany. Choice B, Levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid), is incorrect as it is a thyroid hormone replacement and does not address low calcium levels. Choice D, Propranolol (Inderal), is incorrect as it is a beta-blocker used for conditions like hypertension and not indicated for tetany after thyroidectomy.

3. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.

4. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Having the interpreter co-sign the consent form is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By having the interpreter co-sign, it ensures an additional layer of verification of the client's understanding and consent, which is crucial when language barriers exist. This step adds a level of confirmation to safeguard that the client's consent is both valid and well-informed. Option A is not sufficient as gestures and simple terms may not fully clarify the client's understanding, especially for complex medical procedures. Option C is unnecessary since the interpreter has already confirmed the client's consent. Option D does not involve the interpreter in validating the client's understanding, which is essential in this situation to ensure effective communication and comprehension between the client and the healthcare team.

5. The parents of a 6-year-old child recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy tell the nurse that their child wants to continue attending swimming classes. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the parents to allow the child to continue attending swimming lessons with supervision is the most appropriate response. Swimming can be beneficial for the child, providing both exercise and enjoyment. Supervision can help manage any risks associated with swimming. Choice B is incorrect because the child's preference for swimming should be respected, and swimming can still offer socialization opportunities. Choice C is incorrect as it undermines the child's capability to understand the situation. Choice D is less appropriate as it does not address the child's interest in swimming and may limit beneficial physical activity.

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