HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?
- A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
- B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
- C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
- D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.
2. A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Explain that the symptoms are caused by liver damage and can be managed
- B. Obtain a PRN prescription for an analgesic that the client can use for symptom relief
- C. Encourage the client to use cooler water and apply oil-based lotion after soaking
- D. Suggest that the client take brief showers and apply oil-based lotion after showering
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.
3. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning?
- A. Working together can decrease the risk of back injury.
- B. The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.
- C. Using two or three people increases client safety.
- D. Turning instead of pulling reduces the likelihood of skin damage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.' Log-rolling is a technique used to move a person as a single unit to maintain the alignment of the spinal column. This is crucial to prevent spinal cord injury, especially in clients with suspected spine fractures. Choice A is incorrect because log-rolling focuses on spinal alignment, not just decreasing back injury risks. Choice C is incorrect because the number of people involved is not the primary purpose of log-rolling, which is maintaining spinal alignment. Choice D is incorrect because while turning instead of pulling may help prevent skin damage, the primary goal of log-rolling is to protect the spine, not the skin.
4. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?
- A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
- B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
- C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
- D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.
5. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?
- A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- B. Monitor for the appearance of an incisional hernia
- C. Instruct the client to eat small frequent meals
- D. Measure hourly urinary output
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.
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