Nursing Elites

1. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide a client who asks the purpose of using the log-rolling technique for turning?

• A. Working together can decrease the risk of back injury.
• B. The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.
• C. Using two or three people increases client safety.
• D. Turning instead of pulling reduces the likelihood of skin damage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The technique is intended to maintain straight spinal alignment.' Log-rolling is a technique used to move a person as a single unit to maintain the alignment of the spinal column. This is crucial to prevent spinal cord injury, especially in clients with suspected spine fractures. Choice A is incorrect because log-rolling focuses on spinal alignment, not just decreasing back injury risks. Choice C is incorrect because the number of people involved is not the primary purpose of log-rolling, which is maintaining spinal alignment. Choice D is incorrect because while turning instead of pulling may help prevent skin damage, the primary goal of log-rolling is to protect the spine, not the skin.

2. A client with active tuberculosis (TB) is receiving isoniazid (INH) and rifampin (RMP) daily, so direct observation therapy (DOT) is initiated while the client is hospitalized. Which instruction should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Describe feelings about taking daily medications
• B. Take medications in the presence of the nurse
• C. Notify the nurse after self-medication is completed
• D. Keep a daily record of all medications taken

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide the client undergoing direct observation therapy for TB is to take medications in the presence of the nurse. This approach ensures that the client is actually taking the medications as prescribed, reducing the risk of noncompliance. Choice A is incorrect because the focus should be on ensuring the client physically takes the medications rather than discussing feelings. Choice C is incorrect as it does not ensure direct observation. Choice D is incorrect because self-reporting or keeping a record does not guarantee that the client is actually taking the medications.

3. The nurse is caring for a comatose client. Which assessment finding provides the greatest indication that the client has an open airway?

• A. The client has asymmetrical chest expansion
• B. Percussion reveals dullness over the lung area
• C. Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated
• D. The client has been turned q2h

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Bilateral breath sounds can be auscultated." This finding indicates that air is moving adequately in and out of both lungs, confirming an open airway. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Asymmetrical chest expansion may indicate lung or chest wall abnormalities, percussion revealing dullness over the lung area may suggest consolidation or fluid, and turning the client q2h is a position change intervention to prevent complications, not a direct assessment of airway patency.

4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis reports a new onset of increasing fatigue. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assist the client in conserving energy during daily activities
• B. Explain to the client that this could be a side effect of the medication
• C. Assess the client for pallor
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a balanced diet and hydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with rheumatoid arthritis reporting increasing fatigue is to assess the client for pallor. Fatigue can be a sign of anemia or other complications; assessing for pallor can help determine if anemia is the cause. Option A is incorrect as it does not address the underlying cause of fatigue. Option B assumes the cause without further assessment. Option D is important for overall health but assessing for pallor takes precedence to identify immediate issues related to fatigue.

5. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

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