HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
- D. Decreased serum potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.
2. A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?
- A. Pericardial friction rub
- B. Mitral stenosis
- C. Aortic regurgitation
- D. Tricuspid stenosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.
3. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?
- A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
- B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
- C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
- D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 750 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse over 7 hr. The professional should set the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
- A. 107 mL/hr
- B. 120 mL/hr
- C. 95 mL/hr
- D. 100 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total volume (750 mL) by the total time (7 hr). 750 ÷ 7 ≈ 107 mL/hr. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the infusion rate based on the total volume and time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate in this scenario.
5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
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