HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. Serum creatinine
- D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Low blood pressure
- D. Thirst
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to the excretion of large amounts of dilute urine. Reporting increased urine output is crucial as it is a hallmark sign of diabetes insipidus. Weight gain (choice A) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus; instead, clients may experience weight loss due to fluid loss. Low blood pressure (choice C) can be a complication of diabetes insipidus due to dehydration from excessive urination, but the priority finding to report is the increased urine output. Thirst (choice D) is a common symptom of diabetes insipidus due to the body's attempt to compensate for fluid loss, but it is not the most critical finding to report.
3. A healthcare provider is providing teaching to a client who has a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Ptosis
- B. Hematuria
- C. Urticaria
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. Ptosis refers to drooping of the eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Hematuria indicates blood in the urine and is not a typical allergic reaction symptom. Nausea can occur with various conditions, but it is not a specific manifestation of a mild allergic reaction.
4. During the admission assessment of a terminally ill male client, he states that he is agnostic. What is the best nursing action in response to this statement?
- A. Provide information about the hours and location of the chapel
- B. Document the statement of the client’s spiritual assessment
- C. Invite the client to a healing service for people of all religions
- D. Offer to contact a spiritual advisor of the client’s choice
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best nursing action in response to a terminally ill client stating their agnostic beliefs is to document the client's spiritual assessment. By documenting this information, the healthcare team can ensure that the client's beliefs are acknowledged and respected in their care plan. Providing information about the chapel's hours or inviting the client to a healing service may not align with the client's beliefs and preferences. Offering to contact a spiritual advisor of the client's choice may not be necessary if the client has clearly stated their agnostic beliefs, as they may not wish to engage in spiritual counseling.
5. A healthcare professional is providing care to a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the professional take to prevent complications?
- A. Clean around the stoma with povidone-iodine.
- B. Maintain sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
- C. Use clean technique when suctioning the tracheostomy.
- D. Change tracheostomy ties weekly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential in preventing infections and complications. Option A is incorrect because povidone-iodine may be too harsh for cleaning around the stoma and can lead to skin irritation. Option C is incorrect because suctioning a tracheostomy should be done using sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens. Option D is incorrect as tracheostomy ties need to be changed more frequently, usually every 1-2 days, to prevent skin breakdown and infection.
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