Nursing Elites

1. How should the RN respond to the mother?

• A. Ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child.
• B. Reassure the mother that her child will achieve some growth and development milestones.
• C. Determine if the mother has other children who do not have developmental disabilities.
• D. Encourage the mother to write her thoughts and feelings in a journal.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child. This is crucial to assess for suicidal or homicidal thoughts, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the child. Reassuring the mother about achieving some milestones may not address her immediate emotional distress. Inquiring about other children's developmental status is not the priority when safety concerns are present. While journaling can be therapeutic, in this situation, addressing safety takes precedence.

2. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
• B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
• C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.

3. A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?

• A. "When I return from my tropical island vacation, I will go to the clinic to get my Prolixin injection."
• B. "While I am on vacation and when I return, I will not consume any alcohol-containing food or beverages."
• C. "I will inform the healthcare provider if I develop a sore throat or flu-like symptoms."
• D. "I will maintain my daily intake of benztropine mesylate (Cogentin)."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin, and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its tropical island climate) increases the client's risk of experiencing this side effect. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid direct sun exposure. Choice A indicates a need for health teaching as the client plans to return from vacation in 18 days, which is earlier than the scheduled dose of Prolixin at 20 days after discharge. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate knowledge. Choice B is important because alcohol can interact with Prolixin. Choice C is relevant as it mentions signs of agranulocytosis, a potential side effect of Prolixin. Choice D is correct as benztropine mesylate is used to prevent extrapyramidal symptoms associated with Prolixin.

4. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

5. Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Apply vest or extremity restraints.
• B. Give an alpha-adrenergic blocker.
• C. Provide a diet high in protein and calories.
• D. Prepare the environment to prevent self-injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.

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