Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working on a mental health unit receives a community call from a person who is tearful and states, 'I just feel so nervous all of the time. I don't know what to do about my problems. I haven't been able to sleep at night and have hardly eaten for the past 3 or 4 days.' The nurse should initiate a referral based on which assessment?

• A. Altered thought processes.
• B. Moderate levels of anxiety.
• C. Inadequate social support.
• D. Altered health maintenance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should initiate a referral based on moderate levels of anxiety (B) as the client reports feeling nervous all the time, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, and difficulty solving problems. These symptoms are indicative of significant anxiety levels. The client does not mention symptoms related to altered thought processes (A) or inadequate social support (C). There is insufficient information to suggest altered health maintenance (D) as a reason for referral in this scenario.

2. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching about starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for major depressive disorder?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect.
• B. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
• D. You should expect an immediate improvement in mood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect." SSRIs typically take several weeks to reach their full effect, and it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of depression. Choice C is unrelated to SSRI therapy and pertains more to MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as SSRIs do not provide immediate improvement in mood; rather, they require time to exert their therapeutic effects.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.

4. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. The importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
• B. How to recognize early signs of relapse.
• C. The need to continue follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.
• D. The importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including proper diet and exercise.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.

5. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

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