Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day.
• B. Suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime.
• C. Recommend the client exercise immediately before bedtime.
• D. Advise the client to take a sleep aid nightly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with depression reporting difficulty sleeping is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. A warm beverage can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, which may aid in improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep pattern. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have been attempted and in consultation with a healthcare provider due to potential side effects and risks associated with sleep aids.

2. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

3. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Headaches that will subside in a few weeks
• B. Transient mild anxiety
• C. Insomnia
• D. Torticollis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?

• A. You need to come in for regular blood tests.
• B. This medication can cause weight loss.
• C. You can stop taking this medication once you feel better.
• D. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You need to come in for regular blood tests.' Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, so regular blood tests are required to monitor the client's white blood cell count. Choice B is incorrect because clozapine is associated with weight gain, not weight loss. Choice C is incorrect because the client should never stop taking clozapine abruptly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and symptom relapse. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is typically associated with MAOIs, not clozapine.

5. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching about starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for major depressive disorder?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect.
• B. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
• D. You should expect an immediate improvement in mood.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect." SSRIs typically take several weeks to reach their full effect, and it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of depression. Choice C is unrelated to SSRI therapy and pertains more to MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as SSRIs do not provide immediate improvement in mood; rather, they require time to exert their therapeutic effects.

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