Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who reports difficulty concentrating and feeling restless. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to avoid caffeine.
• B. Suggest the client take up a new hobby.
• C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching deep breathing exercises is the most appropriate intervention for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) experiencing difficulty concentrating and restlessness. Deep breathing exercises are a proven technique to help manage anxiety symptoms, promote relaxation, and improve concentration. Encouraging the client to avoid caffeine (Choice A) may be beneficial, but it is not the most direct intervention for the reported symptoms. Suggesting the client take up a new hobby (Choice B) may be helpful for overall well-being but does not directly address the immediate symptoms. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term, but teaching deep breathing exercises is more immediate and can be easily implemented by the client in various settings.

2. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

3. A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

• A. Self-Actualization
• B. Loving and Belonging
• C. Basic Needs
• D. Safety and Security

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Self-Actualization.' Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, focusing on fulfilling one's full potential and achieving personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager expressing a desire for a job change because they don't feel they are living up to their potential aligns with the characteristics of self-actualization. Choices B, C, and D represent lower levels of Maslow's hierarchy: 'Loving and Belonging' pertains to social needs, 'Basic Needs' encompass physiological and safety needs, and 'Safety and Security' are fundamental needs related to protection and stability.

4. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Marijuana
• C. Methamphetamine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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