Nursing Elites

1. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

2. The actual sets of traits that people exhibit are called their genotypes.

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Possibly
• D. Always

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The actual sets of traits that people exhibit are called phenotypes, not genotypes. Genotypes refer to the genetic makeup of an individual.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is receiving teaching about expected changes during pregnancy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Your stomach will empty rapidly
• B. You should expect your uterus to double in size
• C. You should anticipate nasal stuffiness
• D. Your nipples will become lighter in color

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nasal stuffiness is a common symptom during pregnancy due to increased blood flow and hormonal changes. This symptom is caused by the increased blood volume and hormonal changes that lead to swelling of the nasal passages. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Stomach emptying rate does not significantly change during pregnancy; the uterus does not double in size at 24 weeks but rather grows steadily, and nipples typically darken in color due to increased pigmentation.

4. Which of the following statements is true of mutations?

• A. Mutations can only occur by chance.
• B. Mutations produce sperm and ova cells.
• C. Mutations occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
• D. Mutations help adenine combine with guanine to form the single spiral structure of DNA.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Mutations can occur due to environmental influences such as radiation, chemicals, or other external factors, leading to changes in the DNA sequence. Choice A is incorrect because mutations can also occur due to errors in DNA replication, not solely by chance. Choice B is incorrect as mutations affect the DNA sequence itself, not the production of specific cells. Choice D is incorrect because mutations involve changes in the DNA sequence and do not specifically involve the formation of the DNA structure.

5. Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome produce:

• A. less estrogen than normal males.
• B. less testosterone than normal males.
• C. less adenine than normal males.
• D. less thymine than normal males.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome (XXY), leading to reduced production of testosterone, the primary male sex hormone. This deficiency can result in various physical and developmental characteristics associated with the syndrome. Estrogen levels may actually be relatively elevated due to the imbalance between testosterone and estrogen. Choices C and D are incorrect as adenine and thymine are nucleotide bases found in DNA and are not related to hormone production.

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