Nursing Elites

1. During a prenatal visit, for which of the following clients should the nurse auscultate the fetal heart rate?

• A. A client who has an ultrasound confirming a molar pregnancy
• B. A client who has a crown-rump length corresponding to 7 weeks gestation
• C. A client who has a positive urine pregnancy test 1 week after missed menses
• D. A client who has felt quickening for the first time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because feeling quickening typically occurs around 18-20 weeks of gestation, indicating fetal movement. This is an appropriate time to auscultate the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because a molar pregnancy is not a viable pregnancy, and auscultating the fetal heart rate in this case is not applicable. Choice B is incorrect because a crown-rump length of 7 weeks gestation is too early for fetal heart rate auscultation. Choice C is incorrect because a positive urine pregnancy test alone does not indicate the appropriate timing for fetal heart rate auscultation.

2. Which statement by the client will assist the healthcare provider in determining whether she is in true labor as opposed to false labor?

• A. I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning.
• B. My bag of waters just broke.
• C. The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together.
• D. My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Choice A indicates the passing of the mucus plug, which is a sign of early labor but not definitive for true labor. Choice B, the breaking of the bag of waters, is a sign of labor but does not confirm whether it is true or false labor. Choice D, the baby dropping and increased urination frequency, suggests lightening, a sign that labor may be approaching, but it does not confirm true labor.

3. Which of the following statements is a symptom of cystic fibrosis in children?

• A. Cystic fibrosis leads to uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes.
• B. Cystic fibrosis leads to the excessive production of thick mucus that clogs the pancreas and lungs.
• C. Cystic fibrosis causes red blood cells to clump together, obstructing small blood vessels and decreasing the oxygen supply.
• D. Cystic fibrosis causes the central nervous system to degenerate, resulting in death.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus. This mucus can clog the airways in the lungs and obstruct the pancreas, leading to severe respiratory and digestive problems. Choice A is incorrect because uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes are not typical symptoms of cystic fibrosis. Choice C is incorrect because cystic fibrosis does not directly cause red blood cells to clump together and obstruct small blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect because cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not the central nervous system.

4. A newborn assessment reveals spina bifida occulta. Which maternal factor should the nurse identify as having the greatest impact on the development of this newborn complication?

• A. Tobacco use.
• B. Folic acid deficiency.
• C. Short interval between pregnancies.
• D. Preeclampsia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy is strongly associated with neural tube defects like spina bifida occulta. Adequate folic acid intake before and during early pregnancy significantly reduces the risk of such complications. Tobacco use (Choice A) is linked to other adverse outcomes but not specifically spina bifida occulta. Short intervals between pregnancies (Choice C) can increase the risk of preterm birth and low birth weight but are not directly linked to spina bifida occulta. Preeclampsia (Choice D) is a hypertensive disorder that poses risks to both the mother and baby but is not the primary factor contributing to spina bifida occulta development.

5. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

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