Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?

• A. Pneumococcal
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Rubella

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.

2. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

3. A newborn is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lamp. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Apply a thin layer of lotion to the newborn's skin every 8 hours.
• B. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure the newborn's eyes are closed beneath the shield.
• D. Dress the newborn in a thin layer of clothing during therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During phototherapy using a lamp, it is crucial to protect the newborn's eyes from the light to prevent damage. Closing the newborn's eyes beneath the shield is essential for this purpose. Applying lotion to the skin (Choice A) is not recommended as it can intensify the effects of the phototherapy. Giving glucose water (Choice B) is unrelated to the phototherapy process and is not indicated. Dressing the newborn in clothing (Choice D) may hinder the effectiveness of the phototherapy by blocking the light exposure to the skin.

4. Twenty-year-old Jack is extremely tall and has very thick facial hair. Most of his male secondary sex characteristics are also more pronounced than men of his age. In this scenario, Jack is most likely:

• A. an XYY male.
• B. diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome.
• C. an XXY male.
• D. diagnosed with Down syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: an XYY male. Individuals with XYY syndrome often exhibit increased height and more pronounced secondary male characteristics, such as thick facial hair. Choice B, Klinefelter syndrome (XXY), typically presents with less prominent male secondary sex characteristics due to the presence of an extra X chromosome. Choice C, XXY male, refers to Klinefelter syndrome, which does not align with the description of Jack having more pronounced male secondary sex characteristics. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 21 and is not associated with the physical characteristics described in the scenario.

5. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

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