Nursing Elites

1. When does the fetus typically begin to turn and respond to external stimulation during pregnancy?

• A. During the second or third week
• B. After the first trimester
• C. Sometimes
• D. Never

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The fetus typically begins to respond to external stimulation much later in pregnancy, usually after the first trimester. During the second or third week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the early stages of development and is not yet capable of turning or responding to external stimuli. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the timeline of fetal development when it comes to responding to external stimulation.

2. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

• A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
• B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
• C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
• D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

3. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome:

• A. are unlikely to die from cardiovascular problems by middle age.
• B. have no specific characteristic features.
• C. show deficits in cognitive development.
• D. are likely to have only 46 chromosomes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. According to a study in 2013 by van Gameren-Oosterom, individuals with Down syndrome often exhibit deficits in cognitive development. This is a common characteristic of Down syndrome, along with other health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of cardiovascular problems, contrary to being unlikely to die from them. Choice B is incorrect as Down syndrome is associated with specific characteristic features such as distinctive facial characteristics, making the statement that they have no specific features incorrect. Choice D is incorrect as individuals with Down syndrome have an extra copy of chromosome 21, resulting in a total of 47 chromosomes, not 46.

4. A client at 27 weeks of gestation with preeclampsia is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Urine protein concentration of 200 mg/24 hr.
• B. Creatinine level of 0.8 mg/dL
• C. Hemoglobin level of 14.8 g/dL
• D. Platelet count of 60,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A platelet count of 60,000/mm3 is significantly low and can indicate HELLP syndrome, a severe complication of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. HELLP syndrome requires prompt medical intervention to prevent serious maternal and fetal complications. The other findings listed are within normal limits or not directly related to the severe condition associated with HELLP syndrome.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes 10 units per liter of oxytocin via IV drip to augment a client's labor because she is experiencing a prolonged active phase. Which finding would cause the nurse to immediately discontinue the oxytocin?

• A. Contraction duration of 100 seconds.
• B. Four contractions in 10 minutes.
• C. Uterus is soft.
• D. Early deceleration of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds is too long and can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and other complications. This prolonged contraction duration suggests that the uterus is not relaxing adequately between contractions, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Choice B, 'Four contractions in 10 minutes,' is a sign of tachysystole, which is concerning but not as immediately critical as the prolonged contraction duration. Choice C, 'Uterus is soft,' is not a reason to discontinue oxytocin; in fact, it is a normal finding. Choice D, 'Early deceleration of fetal heart rate,' while indicating fetal distress, is not a direct result of the oxytocin and may require intervention but not immediate discontinuation of the medication.

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