Nursing Elites

1. What is the measure of the number of existing cases of a disease in a specific population at a given time?

• A. Incidence
• B. Prevalence
• C. Mortality rate
• D. Morbidity rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prevalence is the correct answer as it refers to the number of existing cases of a disease in a specific population at a given time. Incidence, on the other hand, refers to the number of new cases of a disease in a defined population over a specific period. Mortality rate is the measure of the number of deaths in a particular population due to a specific cause, while morbidity rate is the frequency of a disease in a specific population.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

3. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.

4. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

5. A client with tuberculosis is receiving isoniazid (INH). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hepatotoxicity
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Isoniazid (INH) can lead to hepatotoxicity, necessitating the monitoring of liver function tests. This adverse effect is characterized by liver damage and dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because isoniazid is not typically associated with hyperglycemia, hypotension, or hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should focus on assessing for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity in a client receiving isoniazid.

Similar Questions