Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

2. A client is on bed rest following an abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings indicates the need to increase the frequency of position changes?

• A. Flat rash on the client's ankle
• B. Non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter
• C. Ecchymosis on the client's left shoulder
• D. Petechiae on the client's right anterior thigh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The presence of a non-blanching red area over the client's trochanter is a concerning finding as it indicates possible pressure ulcer formation. This finding necessitates an increase in the frequency of position changes to prevent skin breakdown. Choices A, C, and D do not directly correlate with the need for increased position changes. A flat rash, ecchymosis, and petechiae may have different causes and would not be addressed by changing the client's position more frequently.

3. A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a client who states, “I always have trouble sleeping.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Teach the client stress reduction techniques
• B. Recommend that the client avoid caffeine intake in the evening
• C. Identify the client’s typical bedtime routine
• D. Encourage the client to exercise regularly during daytime hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to identify the client’s typical bedtime routine. Understanding the client’s sleep habits, environment, and bedtime rituals can provide valuable insight into potential factors contributing to their sleep troubles. Teaching stress reduction techniques (choice A) may be beneficial but should come after understanding the client's routine. Recommending avoiding caffeine intake in the evening (choice B) and encouraging regular daytime exercise (choice D) are important interventions, but identifying the bedtime routine takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's immediate concern.

4. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Erythema along the path of the vein
• B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
• C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
• D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

Similar Questions