Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

2. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

3. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should be asked to assess the quality of the pain?

• A. Is your pain sharp or dull?
• B. Is your pain constant or intermittent?
• C. On a scale from 1 to 10, how severe is your pain?
• D. Where exactly is your pain located?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Asking whether the pain is sharp or dull helps in determining the quality of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate chronic issues. Choices B, C, and D focus on different aspects of pain assessment. Option B pertains to the pattern of pain, either constant or intermittent. Option C addresses the severity of pain on a numerical scale. Option D inquires about the location of pain. While all these questions are essential in pain assessment, when specifically evaluating the quality of pain, distinguishing between sharp and dull sensations is crucial.

4. A male Native American presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent abdominal cramping and nausea. He states that he has chronic constipation and had not had a bowel movement in five days, despite trying several home remedies. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Evaluate the stool samples for the presence of blood
• B. Assess for the presence of an impaction
• C. Determine which home remedies were used
• D. Obtain a list of prescribed medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for impaction is crucial as it is a common cause of constipation and abdominal discomfort. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of chronic constipation and no bowel movement for five days despite trying home remedies indicate a potential impaction that needs to be assessed. Evaluating stool samples for blood, determining the home remedies used, or obtaining a list of prescribed medications, while potentially relevant, are not as urgent as assessing for impaction in this situation.

5. A client with a history of heart failure presents with increased shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level.
• B. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• C. Check for jugular vein distention.
• D. Measure the client's urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking for jugular vein distention is crucial in assessing fluid overload in clients with heart failure. Jugular vein distention indicates increased central venous pressure, which can be a sign of worsening heart failure. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but may not provide immediate information on fluid status. Assessing the apical pulse (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring heart rate but may not directly indicate fluid overload. Measuring urine output (Choice D) is essential for assessing renal function and fluid balance but does not provide immediate information on fluid overload in this scenario.

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