a 2 year old child is brought to the health care providers office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days nutritional counseling by the nur
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Test Bank

1. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.

2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.

3. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

4. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

5. A client with an aggressive form of prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider briefly discusses treatment options and leaves the room. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should offer support without pressuring the client. Stating, “I am available to talk if you should change your mind,” acknowledges the client's decision while leaving the door open for future discussions. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client's decision is final without offering further support. Choice C directs the client back to the provider without addressing the nurse's availability. Choice D commits to a future discussion without considering the client's current preference.

Similar Questions

A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?
A healthcare professional is planning to obtain the vital signs of a 2-year-old child who is experiencing diarrhea and who might have a right ear infection. Which of the following routes should the healthcare professional use to obtain the temperature?
A nurse is evaluating a client’s use of a cane. What is the correct use?
While a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which of the following actions should the nurse take?

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