Nursing Elites

1. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Offer the client tart or sour foods.
• B. Ensure the client is sitting upright while eating.
• C. Provide soft and easily swallowable foods.
• D. Give the client thickened liquids to help with swallowing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.

2. A dying client is coping with feelings regarding impending death. The nurse bases care on the theory of death and dying by Kübler-Ross. During which stage of grieving should the LPN/LVN primarily use nonverbal interventions?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonverbal interventions are primarily used during the acceptance stage according to Kübler-Ross's theory of death and dying. During the acceptance stage, the individual is more likely to be reflective and less communicative, making nonverbal interventions more effective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because anger, denial, and bargaining are stages that precede the acceptance stage in Kübler-Ross's model, where verbal communication and processing emotions play a more significant role.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours
• B. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
• C. Use sterile technique to collect a specimen from the drainage system
• D. Secure the catheter to the lower abdomen with a securement device

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan is to keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important, typically every 4-8 hours or when it is half-full, to maintain adequate flow and prevent infection (Choice A is incorrect). Using a sterile technique to collect specimens from the drainage system is crucial to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, so clean technique should not be used (Choice C is incorrect). Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is not recommended as it can cause tension on the catheter, leading to discomfort and potential trauma to the urethra (Choice D is incorrect).

4. A nurse offers pain medication to a client who is postoperative before ambulation. The nurse understands that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Beneficence. Beneficence involves actions intended to benefit the client, such as providing pain relief. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating beneficence by offering pain medication to alleviate the client's discomfort and promote their well-being. Fidelity (A) relates to being faithful to agreements and commitments, autonomy (B) refers to respecting a client's right to make decisions about their care, and justice (C) involves fairness and equal treatment. While these ethical principles are important in healthcare, the situation described primarily exemplifies the principle of beneficence.

5. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

• A. Screening for early symptoms
• B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
• C. Elimination of the exposure
• D. Increasing awareness of symptoms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

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