HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. The nurse is providing care for a client with a wound infection. Which type of precautions should the nurse implement?
- A. Airborne precautions
- B. Droplet precautions
- C. Contact precautions
- D. Standard precautions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when caring for a client with a wound infection to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve practices such as wearing gloves and gowns, and ensuring proper hand hygiene. Airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted by small droplet nuclei that can remain suspended in the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets larger than 5 microns, such as influenza. Standard precautions are used for all clients to prevent the spread of infection and include practices like hand hygiene, use of personal protective equipment, and safe injection practices. In this case, since the client has a wound infection, the nurse should focus on implementing contact precautions to reduce the risk of spreading the infection to themselves or others.
2. To minimize the side effects of vincristine (Oncovin) that a client is receiving, what does the LPN/LVN expect the dietary plan to include?
- A. Low in fat
- B. High in iron
- C. High in fluids
- D. Low in residue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to include a diet high in fluids to help minimize the side effects of vincristine. High fluid intake is important in managing potential side effects such as constipation, which is a common issue associated with vincristine therapy. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. A diet low in fat or high in iron is not specifically indicated for managing vincristine side effects. Additionally, a diet low in residue is not directly related to addressing vincristine side effects.
3. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?
- A. Airborne
- B. Droplet
- C. Contact
- D. Protective environment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.
4. A client is receiving discharge instructions for using a walker. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will hire someone to trim the tree that hangs low over the stairs of my front porch.
- B. I will avoid using the walker on uneven surfaces.
- C. I will use the walker on stairs for added support.
- D. I will not need to make any changes to my home environment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because hiring someone to trim low-hanging branches over stairs ensures home safety and reflects an understanding of walker use. This action indicates the client's awareness of potential hazards and the importance of a safe environment for walker use. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding uneven surfaces is a general safety precaution but does not directly relate to walker use and does not demonstrate an understanding of the teaching. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker on stairs is not recommended due to safety concerns such as balance and fall risks. Choice D is incorrect as making no changes to the home environment may pose safety risks when using a walker, showing a lack of understanding regarding safety precautions needed for walker use.
5. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
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