Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client about self-administering heparin.

• A. Administer medication in the abdomen.
• B. Administer medication in the thigh.
• C. Administer medication in the upper arm.
• D. Administer medication in the buttock.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Heparin is typically administered in the abdomen for self-injection to avoid muscle tissue and for better absorption. The subcutaneous tissue in the abdomen provides a larger area for injection and is usually recommended for heparin administration. Administering heparin in the thigh, upper arm, or buttock may not be as effective or safe as the abdomen due to variations in absorption rates and potential risks associated with muscle injection.

2. A nurse in a primary care clinic is assessing a client who has a history of herpes zoster. Which of the following findings suggests that the client has postherpetic neuralgia?

• A. Linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder.
• B. Purulent drainage from both eyes.
• C. Decreased white blood cell count.
• D. Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Report of continued pain following resolution of the rash. Postherpetic neuralgia is a complication of herpes zoster characterized by persistent pain that continues even after the rash has resolved. This pain can be severe and debilitating, affecting the quality of life of the individual. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because linear clusters of vesicles on the right shoulder would suggest an active herpes zoster outbreak, purulent drainage from both eyes would indicate an eye infection unrelated to postherpetic neuralgia, and a decreased white blood cell count is not typically associated with postherpetic neuralgia.

3. When assisting an older adult client with dysphagia following a CVA during mealtime, what should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Offer the client tart or sour foods.
• B. Ensure the client is sitting upright while eating.
• C. Provide soft and easily swallowable foods.
• D. Give the client thickened liquids to help with swallowing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is sitting upright while eating. This position helps prevent aspiration and facilitates swallowing. Offering tart or sour foods (Choice A) may not be suitable for someone with dysphagia as they can be difficult to swallow and may increase the risk of aspiration. Providing soft and easily swallowable foods (Choice C) is crucial for individuals with swallowing difficulties. While giving thickened liquids (Choice D) is a common intervention for dysphagia, the priority during mealtime should be ensuring the client's proper positioning to support safe swallowing and prevent aspiration.

4. A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

• A. “I had my immunizations as a child, so I’m protected in that area.”
• B. “It is important to schedule routine health care visits even if I am feeling well.”
• C. “I will go to an urgent care center for my routine medical care.”
• D. “There’s no reason to seek help if I am feeling stressed as it’s just part of life.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

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