Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with schizophrenia who is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities.
• B. Ask the client to describe the voices he hears.
• C. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• D. Encourage the client to interact with others who are not experiencing hallucinations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client to describe the voices he hears is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. It helps the nurse assess the content and severity of the hallucinations, enabling the planning of appropriate interventions. Choice A is not as effective as directly addressing the hallucinations. Choice C may lead to mistrust as the client believes the voices are real. Choice D does not address the client's immediate need related to the hallucinations.

2. When planning care for a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal should be prioritized?

• A. The client will establish normal eating patterns.
• B. The client will verbalize feelings about food and weight.
• C. The client will gain a minimum of 2 pounds per week.
• D. The client will achieve normal electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because achieving normal electrolyte balance is critical in clients with anorexia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and organ failure. While establishing normal eating patterns (choice A) and verbalizing feelings about food and weight (choice B) are important aspects of treatment, addressing electrolyte balance takes precedence due to the immediate risks associated with imbalances. Additionally, setting a weight gain goal of 2 pounds per week (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as rapid refeeding can also lead to electrolyte imbalances and other complications.

3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

4. A 40-year-old male client diagnosed with schizophrenia and alcohol dependence has not had any visitors or phone calls since admission. He reports he has no family that cares about him and was living on the streets prior to this admission. According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which stage is the client in at this time?

• A. Isolation.
• B. Stagnation.
• C. Despair.
• D. Role confusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in Erikson's 'Generativity vs. Stagnation' stage (age 24 to 45). This stage involves maintaining intimate relationships and moving toward developing a family, which the client seems to be struggling with due to lack of visitors and family support. Choices (A), (C), and (D) are incorrect. Isolation typically occurs in young adulthood (age 18 to 25), Despair in maturity (age 45 to death), and Role confusion in adolescence (age 12 to 20). These stages reflect challenges individuals face if they do not successfully navigate their psychosocial developmental tasks.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with major depressive disorder who is withdrawn and refuses to participate in group activities. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to attend at least one group session.
• B. Respect the client's wish to remain isolated.
• C. Arrange for individual therapy sessions.
• D. Offer the client a list of activities to choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to attend at least one group session is the best nursing intervention in this scenario. By gently encouraging participation, the nurse can help the client start to engage with others, which may gradually improve their mood and social interaction. Choice B, respecting the client's wish to remain isolated, may further exacerbate the client's withdrawal and depression by reinforcing avoidance behavior. Choice C, arranging for individual therapy sessions, can be beneficial but may not address the specific need for social interaction. Choice D, offering a list of activities to choose from, does not directly address the client's difficulty in participating in group activities and may not provide the necessary support in overcoming social withdrawal.

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