Nursing Elites

1. A client with bipolar disorder is started on a regimen of valproic acid (Depakote). Which laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Serum sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests. Valproic acid can cause hepatotoxicity, leading to liver damage. Monitoring liver function tests is crucial to detect any early signs of liver impairment. Kidney function tests (Choice B) are not the most important to monitor in this case. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) and serum sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly affected by valproic acid and are not the priority for monitoring in a client taking this medication.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Encourage group activities to decrease isolation.
• B. Provide a structured environment with routine activities.
• C. Limit the client's physical activity to prevent exhaustion.
• D. Allow the client to choose activities freely.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit excessive energy, impulsivity, and disorganized behavior. Providing a structured environment with routine activities is the most appropriate nursing intervention. This approach can help regulate the client's behavior, reduce impulsivity, and prevent engaging in potentially harmful activities. Encouraging group activities (Choice A) may exacerbate the client's symptoms due to overstimulation. Limiting physical activity (Choice C) may not address the need for structure and routine during a manic episode. Allowing the client to choose activities freely (Choice D) can lead to impulsive decision-making and may not provide the necessary boundaries required to manage the manic symptoms effectively.

3. A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

• A. Self-Actualization.
• B. Loving and Belonging.
• C. Basic Needs.
• D. Safety and Security.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Self-Actualization. Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's development stages, characterized by the desire to fulfill one's full potential and achieve personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager's statement indicates a need for personal fulfillment and reaching his highest aspirations, aligning with the concept of self-actualization. Choice B, Loving and Belonging, refers to the need for social relationships and support systems. Choice C, Basic Needs, represents the foundation level of Maslow's hierarchy, encompassing physiological needs like food and shelter. Choice D, Safety and Security, pertains to the need for physical and emotional safety.

4. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

5. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

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