HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
- A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
- B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
- C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
- D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
2. Which of the following statements is a symptom of cystic fibrosis in children?
- A. Cystic fibrosis leads to uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes.
- B. Cystic fibrosis leads to the excessive production of thick mucus that clogs the pancreas and lungs.
- C. Cystic fibrosis causes red blood cells to clump together, obstructing small blood vessels and decreasing the oxygen supply.
- D. Cystic fibrosis causes the central nervous system to degenerate, resulting in death.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes the body to produce thick, sticky mucus. This mucus can clog the airways in the lungs and obstruct the pancreas, leading to severe respiratory and digestive problems. Choice A is incorrect because uncontrollable muscle movements and personality changes are not typical symptoms of cystic fibrosis. Choice C is incorrect because cystic fibrosis does not directly cause red blood cells to clump together and obstruct small blood vessels. Choice D is incorrect because cystic fibrosis primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, not the central nervous system.
3. When speaking to young parents, the nurse states that lead poisoning is one of the most common preventable health problems affecting children. What condition occurs when the level of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone?
- A. Malnutrition
- B. Anemia
- C. Bone pain
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. When the amount of lead ingested exceeds the amount that can be absorbed by the bone, it leads to anemia. Malnutrition (Choice A) is a state of inadequate nutrition, not directly related to lead poisoning. Bone pain (Choice C) is a symptom of lead poisoning due to its effects on bones but not directly related to lead ingestion exceeding absorption. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a direct consequence of lead ingestion exceeding absorption by bones.
4. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is reporting pain despite taking analgesics. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to determine the intensity of the client’s pain?
- A. Ask the client what precipitates the pain.
- B. Question the client about the location of the pain.
- C. Offer the client a pain scale to measure their pain.
- D. Use open-ended questions to identify the client’s pain sensations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Offering the client a pain scale is the most appropriate action to determine the intensity of the client’s pain. Pain scales help quantify the intensity of pain, providing a standardized way to assess and compare pain levels. Asking about precipitating factors (choice A) may help identify triggers but does not directly measure pain intensity. Questioning about the location of pain (choice B) helps with localization but not with quantifying intensity. Using open-ended questions (choice D) may provide insights into the quality and experience of pain but does not provide a standardized measure of intensity.
5. Which facilities are capable of performing minor surgeries and some simple laboratory examinations?
- A. Secondary level health care
- B. Intermediate level care
- C. Tertiary level care
- D. Primary health care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Secondary level health care facilities are equipped to perform minor surgeries and simple laboratory examinations. Intermediate level care (choice B) refers to a level of care between primary and secondary care, focusing on more complex procedures than minor surgeries. Tertiary level care (choice C) is specialized care that includes services like cardiac surgery and neurosurgery. Primary health care (choice D) is the first point of contact for individuals and is not typically equipped for minor surgeries or complex laboratory tests.