Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

2. During a patient assessment, which principle should be a priority?

• A. Foot care is always important.
• B. Daily bathing is always important.
• C. Hygiene needs are always important.
• D. Critical thinking is always important.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a patient assessment, critical thinking is a priority because a patient's condition can change rapidly, necessitating continuous critical thinking and adaptation of nursing interventions. While foot care, daily bathing, and hygiene needs are important components of patient care, they may not always take precedence over critical thinking, which guides the nurse in making timely and appropriate decisions based on the patient's current condition and needs. Therefore, critical thinking stands out as the most crucial principle during patient assessments.

3. A healthcare provider is delegating client care to assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks should the healthcare provider delegate?

• A. Evaluating healing of an incision
• B. Inserting an NG Tube
• C. Performing a simple dressing change
• D. Changing IV tubing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that a healthcare provider should delegate to assistive personnel is performing a simple dressing change. Assistive personnel are trained and competent in performing basic wound care activities like simple dressing changes. Evaluating the healing of an incision requires clinical judgment and assessment skills that are typically performed by licensed healthcare professionals, such as nurses or physicians. Inserting an NG tube and changing IV tubing involve invasive procedures that require specialized training and skills, making them tasks that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers rather than assistive personnel.

4. An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is

• A. prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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