Nursing Elites

1. Three days following surgery, a male client observes his colostomy for the first time. He becomes quite upset and tells the LPN that it is much bigger than he expected. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Reassure the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance in time.
• B. Instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes.
• C. Offer to contact a member of the local ostomy support group to help him with his concerns.
• D. Encourage the client to handle the stoma equipment to gain confidence with the procedure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to instruct the client that the stoma will become smaller when the initial swelling diminishes. This explanation helps reassure the client about the temporary appearance of the stoma. Choice A is incorrect because simply reassuring the client that he will become accustomed to the stoma's appearance does not address the immediate concern about the stoma size. Choice C is incorrect because offering to contact a support group does not directly address the client's current distress about the stoma size. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to handle stoma equipment does not directly address the client's concern about the stoma size and may not be appropriate at this time.

2. What intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention?

• A. Apply a condom catheter.
• B. Apply a skin protectant.
• C. Encourage increased fluid intake.
• D. Assess for bladder distention.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement for a male client experiencing urinary retention is to assess for bladder distention. This assessment is crucial as it helps identify the underlying cause of urinary retention, such as bladder distention or obstruction. By assessing the bladder, the LPN/LVN can determine the appropriate interventions needed, such as catheterization, medication administration, or further evaluation by the healthcare provider. Applying a condom catheter (Choice A) is more suitable for urinary incontinence, not retention. Applying a skin protectant (Choice B) is typically done to prevent skin breakdown in incontinent clients. Encouraging increased fluid intake (Choice C) may be beneficial for some urinary issues but is not the priority intervention for urinary retention.

3. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.

4. A healthcare professional is obtaining the blood pressure in a client's lower extremity. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Place the bladder of the cuff over the posterior aspect of the thigh
• B. Use a smaller cuff designed for lower extremities
• C. Place the cuff around the client's ankle
• D. Ensure the cuff is positioned above the knee

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When measuring blood pressure in the lower extremity, the bladder of the cuff should be placed over the posterior aspect of the thigh. This positioning ensures an accurate measurement. Placing the cuff around the ankle (Choice C) or above the knee (Choice D) would not provide an accurate blood pressure reading in the lower extremity. Using a smaller cuff designed for lower extremities (Choice B) is not appropriate as the standard cuff size should be used with the bladder placed over the posterior aspect of the thigh.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

• A. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• B. Administer oral hypoglycemic agents.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels frequently.
• D. Provide a high-calorie diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

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