Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assessing the nutritional status of several clients. Which client has the greatest nutritional need for additional intake of protein?

• A. A college-age track runner with a sprained ankle.
• B. A lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant.
• C. A school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes.
• D. An elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, a lactating woman nursing her 3-day-old infant. During lactation, women have increased nutritional needs, including protein, to support milk production for their infants. Protein is essential for proper growth and development. While choice A, a college-age track runner with a sprained ankle, may require protein for tissue repair, the lactating woman's need is greater due to the demands of breastfeeding. Choice C, a school-aged child with Type 2 diabetes, may have specific dietary considerations related to diabetes management but does not necessarily require additional protein intake compared to a lactating woman. Choice D, an elderly man being treated for a peptic ulcer, may need protein for wound healing, but the nutritional need for a lactating woman is higher to support her infant's growth.

2. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

3. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Impaired balance
• B. Hemiplegia
• C. Muscle sprain
• D. Lower extremity paralysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

4. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter?

• A. Ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks.
• B. Change the catheter every 72 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with an antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Irrigate the catheter with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action to prevent infection in a client with an indwelling urinary catheter is to ensure the catheter tubing is free of kinks. This step helps prevent obstruction in the tubing, maintaining proper urine flow and reducing the risk of infection. Changing the catheter every 72 hours is not recommended unless clinically indicated, as routine changes can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Cleaning the perineal area with an antiseptic solution is essential for general hygiene but does not directly prevent catheter-related infections. Irrigating the catheter with normal saline every shift is not a standard practice and can introduce microorganisms into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection.

5. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

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