HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the nurse include as a developmental task for middle adulthood?
- A. The client evaluates their behavior after a social interaction.
- B. The client states they are learning to trust others.
- C. The client wishes to find meaningful friendships.
- D. The client expresses concerns about the next generations.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because in middle adulthood, individuals often shift their focus towards concerns related to the next generations. They reflect on their roles in guiding and supporting the younger generations. Choice A is incorrect as evaluating behavior after a social interaction is more relevant to self-awareness, which is not a specific developmental task for middle adulthood. Choice B, learning to trust others, is more commonly associated with early adulthood tasks related to forming intimate relationships. Choice C, wishing to find meaningful friendships, is more aligned with tasks associated with young adulthood and social connections.
2. A cerebrovascular accident patient is placed on a ventilator. The client’s daughter arrives with a durable power of attorney and a living will that indicates no extraordinary life-saving measures. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Refer to the risk manager
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Discontinue the ventilator
- D. Review the medical record
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to notify the healthcare provider. In this situation, involving the healthcare provider ensures appropriate review and adherence to legal and ethical standards based on the living will and durable power of attorney. Referring to the risk manager may not be directly related to the immediate decision-making process regarding the ventilator. Discontinuing the ventilator without proper authorization from the healthcare provider could lead to legal and ethical implications. Reviewing the medical record alone may not provide guidance on how to proceed with the specific instructions from the living will and durable power of attorney.
3. During an abdominal assessment for an adult client, what is the correct sequence of steps?
- A. Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate
- B. Palpate, Percuss, Inspect, Auscultate
- C. Auscultate, Inspect, Percuss, Palpate
- D. Percuss, Palpate, Inspect, Auscultate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence for an abdominal assessment in an adult client is to first Inspect the abdomen for any visible abnormalities, then Auscultate to listen for bowel sounds, followed by Percussion to assess for organ size and presence of fluid or masses, and finally Palpation to feel for tenderness, masses, or organ enlargement. Choice A, 'Inspect, Auscultate, Percuss, Palpate,' is the correct sequence for an abdominal assessment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the recommended sequence of assessment. Palpation should be the last step as it can potentially alter bowel sounds and percussion findings if done before. This deviation can lead to missing important findings or inaccurate assessment results.
4. A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?
- A. Side-lying
- B. Supine
- C. Semi-Fowler’s
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s or high-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
- A. Hourly urine output
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
- D. Temperature every 2 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.
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