Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the nurse include as a developmental task for middle adulthood?

• A. The client evaluates their behavior after a social interaction.
• B. The client states they are learning to trust others.
• C. The client wishes to find meaningful friendships.
• D. The client expresses concerns about the next generations.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because in middle adulthood, individuals often shift their focus towards concerns related to the next generations. They reflect on their roles in guiding and supporting the younger generations. Choice A is incorrect as evaluating behavior after a social interaction is more relevant to self-awareness, which is not a specific developmental task for middle adulthood. Choice B, learning to trust others, is more commonly associated with early adulthood tasks related to forming intimate relationships. Choice C, wishing to find meaningful friendships, is more aligned with tasks associated with young adulthood and social connections.

2. A group of newly licensed nurses is being taught about the Braden Scale by a nurse. Which of the following responses by a newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “The client’s age is not a factor in the measurement.”
• B. “The scale measures six elements.”
• C. “A lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers.”
• D. “Each element is scored on a range from 1 to 4 points.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the Braden Scale measures six elements: Sensory Perception, Moisture, Activity, Mobility, Nutrition, Friction, and Shear. The other choices are incorrect because: Choice A states that the client's age is not a factor in the measurement, which is accurate as age is not included in the Braden Scale. Choice C incorrectly states that a lower score indicates a higher risk of pressure ulcers, which is the opposite of how the Braden Scale works. Choice D inaccurately describes the scoring range of each element on the Braden Scale, which is not from 1 to 4 points but rather from 1 to 3.

3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

4. A nurse is preparing to provide tracheostomy care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Perform hand hygiene
• B. Identify the client using two identifiers
• C. Prepare the sterile field
• D. Don sterile gloves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing hand hygiene is essential before any direct patient care procedure to prevent the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene helps reduce the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the client, especially when dealing with a procedure like tracheostomy care. Identifying the client, preparing the sterile field, and donning sterile gloves are all important steps in tracheostomy care, but hand hygiene precedes them to maintain asepsis and ensure patient safety.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
• C. Inject the medication into the muscle.
• D. Pinch the skin before injecting.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.

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