Nursing Elites

1. During a neurologic examination, which assessment should a nurse perform to test a client's balance?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Heel-to-toe walk
• C. Snellen test
• D. Spinal accessory function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is used to assess a client's balance by evaluating their ability to maintain a steady posture with eyes closed. The heel-to-toe walk is another assessment that tests balance by assessing gait and coordination. The Snellen test is used to assess visual acuity and is unrelated to balance. Testing spinal accessory function involves assessing the movement of the head and shoulders and is not directly related to balance assessment.

2. When providing oral care for an unconscious client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a lateral position with the head turned to the side before beginning the procedure.
• B. Insert a suction catheter before brushing the teeth.
• C. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush only with water.
• D. Brush the client's teeth while they are in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When providing oral care for an unconscious client, it is essential to place them in a lateral position with the head turned to the side before beginning the procedure. This positioning helps prevent aspiration by allowing fluids to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of choking or aspiration pneumonia. Inserting a suction catheter before brushing the teeth (Choice B) is not recommended as it can cause discomfort and increase the risk of oral tissue injury. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush only with water (Choice C) is not sufficient for effective oral care as toothpaste helps in removing plaque and bacteria. Brushing the client's teeth while they are in a supine position (Choice D) is not safe as it increases the risk of aspiration since fluids can easily enter the airway in this position.

3. A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?

• A. A 16-year-old client who is married
• B. A 27-year-old who has schizophrenia
• C. An adoptive parent who brings in their 8-year-old child
• D. A 17-year-old mother who brings in her toddler

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.

4. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discard the first voiding.
• B. Keep the urine in a single container on ice.
• C. Include the last voiding in the collection.
• D. Instruct the client to urinate into the toilet, stop midstream, and finish urinating into the specimen container.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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