the rn is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence which strategies sho
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. The RN is providing education about strategies for a safety plan for a female client who is a victim of intimate partner violence. Which strategies should be included in the safety plan? (SOA)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing a code with family and friends is crucial in situations of intimate partner violence as it allows discreet communication for help without alerting the abuser. Having a pre-prepared bag with essentials like extra clothes is important to facilitate a quick exit if necessary. Purchasing a gun is not a recommended safety strategy as it can escalate violence and pose more danger. While taking a self-defense course focused on protection is beneficial, it is essential to avoid courses that emphasize retaliation, as they can increase the risk and escalate violence.

2. The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the working phase of group development, the focus should be on discussing and applying new coping skills to promote progress. This helps group members to practice and implement the skills they have learned, leading to positive outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are not ideal during the working phase. While establishing rapport is important, it is more relevant during the initial orientation phase. Clarifying roles and responsibilities is important at the beginning of group formation, and helping clients identify areas of problem in their lives is often part of the exploration phase, not the working phase.

3. The nurse on the day shift receives report about a client with depression who was found on the floor in the morning. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client to engage in activities is the best intervention as it can help improve mood and prevent further decline in function. This intervention can also help the client regain a sense of control and purpose. Option B, monitoring appetite and sleep patterns, is important but not the most immediate intervention needed in this situation. Option C, assessing feelings about the hospital stay, is also important but addressing the client's physical safety and well-being should take precedence. Option D, explaining the frequency of staff checks, is not as effective in addressing the client's immediate needs for engagement and support.

4. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select all that apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention is to administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction. The presentation of stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign changes suggest an acute dystonic reaction, which is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to manage these acute dystonic reactions. Option A is incorrect because holding the medication without addressing the acute symptoms may lead to worsening of the condition. Option B is incorrect as wiping with cold water or alcohol does not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Option D is incorrect because it mentions tardive dyskinesia, which is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements that occur with long-term antipsychotic use, not the acute dystonic reaction seen here.

5. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

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