Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Ask the client to describe the voices he hears.
• D. Encourage the client to interact with others who are not experiencing hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage the client to focus on reality-based activities. This intervention helps redirect their attention away from hallucinations, promoting engagement with the environment. Choice B is incorrect as telling the client that the voices are not real may invalidate their experiences and worsen the therapeutic relationship. Choice C may increase the client's distress by focusing on the hallucinations. Choice D might not be helpful as interacting with others who are not experiencing hallucinations may not address the client's current needs.

2. A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Spaghetti and meatballs
• B. Chicken salad sandwich
• C. Steak and potatoes
• D. Hamburger and fries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A chicken salad sandwich (B) is the most appropriate choice as it is easy to eat on the go, which is important for a client in the manic phase who may have difficulty sitting still for a meal. Spaghetti and meatballs (A) and steak and potatoes (C) require more time and effort to eat, which may be challenging for a client experiencing mania. While hamburger and fries (D) could be an option, a chicken salad sandwich is a healthier and more manageable choice, considering the client's potential hyperactive state.

3. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

4. The client with schizophrenia believes the news commentator is her lover and speaks to her. What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. What do you believe the news commentator said to you?
• B. Let's switch to a different news channel.
• C. Is the news commentator planning to harm you or others?
• D. The news commentator is not communicating with you.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client what she believes the news commentator said, as it helps the nurse assess the client's perception and delve into her delusions without being confrontational. Choice B is not helpful in addressing the client's delusions. Choice C jumps to conclusions about potential harm without assessing the client's beliefs. Choice D is dismissive and does not address the client's reality.

5. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

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