Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

• A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
• B. Only review the client’s current medications.
• C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
• D. Discuss the client’s medication history without verification.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.

2. The nurse admits a 7 year-old to the emergency room after a leg injury. The x-rays show a femur fracture near the epiphysis. The parents ask what will be the outcome of this injury. The appropriate response by the nurse should be which of these statements?

• A. The injury is expected to heal quickly because of thin periosteum.
• B. In some instances the result is a retarded bone growth.
• C. Bone growth is stimulated in the affected leg.
• D. This type of injury shows more rapid union than that of younger children.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A fracture near the epiphysis can result in retarded bone growth, so this should be communicated to the parents.

3. In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:

• A. Be at an increased susceptibility for infection
• B. Have a wound that heals more slowly
• C. Experience more pain during the healing process
• D. Require more frequent dressing changes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the tube?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• B. Secure the tube to the client's gown.
• C. Check the placement of the tube by auscultation.
• D. Irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to maintain patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube is to flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Flushing helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for proper functioning. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice B) is important for stability but does not directly address tube patency. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice C) is crucial for verifying correct placement but does not specifically relate to maintaining tube patency. Irrigating the tube with normal saline every shift (Choice D) is not a routine practice for maintaining tube patency and can lead to electrolyte imbalances.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

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