HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?
- A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
- B. Only review the client’s current medications.
- C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
- D. Discuss the client’s medication history without verification.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.
2. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?
- A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
- B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
- C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
- D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.
3. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing the deep tendon reflexes of a client. Which of the following techniques should the nurse identify as indicating the correct method for eliciting the client's patellar reflex?
- A. Tap just below the knee
- B. Tap on the upper thigh
- C. Tap on the ankle
- D. Tap on the lower leg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for eliciting the client's patellar reflex is to tap just below the knee. This action stimulates the stretch receptors in the patellar tendon, leading to a reflex contraction of the quadriceps muscle and extension of the lower leg. Tapping on the upper thigh (Choice B) would not elicit the patellar reflex as it targets a different area. Similarly, tapping on the ankle (Choice C) or tapping on the lower leg (Choice D) would not produce the desired response associated with the patellar reflex, making them incorrect choices.
4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?
- A. Administer antibiotic therapy for 10 days
- B. Teach the client isometric exercises for legs
- C. Assess movement and sensation of extremities
- D. Assist the client to stand up at the bedside within the first 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.
5. A healthcare professional is explaining the use of written consent forms to a newly-licensed healthcare professional. The healthcare professional should ensure that a written consent form has been signed by which of the following clients?
- A. A client who has a prescription for a transfusion of packed red blood cells.
- B. A client who is scheduled for a routine physical examination.
- C. A client who is undergoing a minor surgical procedure without anesthesia.
- D. A client who has been prescribed a new medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Written consent is required for procedures that carry significant risks, such as blood transfusions, to ensure the client’s informed consent and understanding of the procedure. In this case, a transfusion of packed red blood cells is an invasive procedure that carries risks, making it essential to have the client's written consent. Choices B, C, and D do not typically require written consent as routine physical examinations, minor surgical procedures without anesthesia, and new medication prescriptions do not carry the same level of risk and complexity as a blood transfusion.
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