Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

• A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
• B. Only review the client’s current medications.
• C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
• D. Discuss the client’s medication history without verification.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.

2. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

4. The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
• B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
• C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
• D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reassessing the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this situation. Using the correct cuff size is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. By reassessing with a larger cuff, the nurse can ensure an accurate measurement and proper monitoring of the client's blood pressure. Choice A is not the best option as it doesn't address the immediate need for accurate blood pressure measurement. Choice C is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate concern is ensuring correct blood pressure assessment. Choice D, while important, is not the most critical step in this scenario where immediate reassessment is needed with the correct cuff size.

5. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, what should be the next action by the nurse?

• A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contact with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. By doing so, the nurse can address their emotions professionally and seek guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. This approach allows the nurse to receive support and potentially gain insights on how to navigate interactions with the manipulative client. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues causing the reluctance and can impact the quality of care provided. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client directly about negative behaviors may escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario; it is essential to address the nurse's feelings first before considering behavior modification plans.

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