HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank
1. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?
- A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
- B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
- C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
- D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.
2. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
- A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Calculate total intake and output.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
3. An older male was recently admitted to the rehabilitation unit with unilateral neglect syndrome as a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Provide additional light in the room to promote sensory stimulation
- B. Teach the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning
- C. Place a clock and calendar in the room to improve orientation
- D. Use hand and arm gestures to improve communication and comprehension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning is essential in addressing unilateral neglect syndrome caused by a cerebrovascular accident. This action helps improve visual awareness and assists the client in overcoming the neglect of one side of the body. Providing additional light for sensory stimulation (Choice A) may not directly address the issue of unilateral neglect. Placing a clock and calendar in the room (Choice C) may be helpful for orientation but does not specifically target unilateral neglect. Using hand and arm gestures for communication (Choice D) may aid in communication but does not directly address the visual scanning deficits associated with unilateral neglect syndrome.
4. A client is being taught how to administer ear drops. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands?
- A. I will straighten my ear canal by pulling my ear down and back.
- B. I will gently apply pressure with my finger to the front part of my ear after putting in the drops.
- C. I will insert the nozzle of the ear drop bottle snugly into my ear before squeezing the drops in.
- D. After the drops are in, I will place a cotton ball all the way into my ear canal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Gently applying pressure to the front part of the ear after administering drops helps with absorption. Pulling the ear down and back is a correct technique for adults. Snugly inserting the nozzle of the ear drop bottle or placing a cotton ball all the way into the ear canal is unnecessary and can potentially cause harm or discomfort. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.
5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?
- A. Erythema and pain
- B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
- C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
- D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.