HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. Which of the following statements about Rh incompatibility is true?
- A. Rh incompatibility occurs most commonly during a woman’s first pregnancy.
- B. Rh incompatibility is an untreatable condition that leaves a woman infertile for the rest of her life.
- C. Rh incompatibility is an abnormality that is transmitted from generation to generation and carried by a sex chromosome.
- D. Rh incompatibility occurs due to antibodies transmitted to a fetus during subsequent deliveries causing brain damage or death.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Rh incompatibility occurs when the mother's antibodies attack the fetus's red blood cells, leading to serious complications, usually in subsequent pregnancies. Choice A is incorrect because Rh incompatibility often occurs in subsequent pregnancies, not necessarily the first one. Choice B is incorrect as Rh incompatibility does not render a woman infertile but can lead to complications during pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as Rh incompatibility is not carried by a sex chromosome but involves the Rh factor on red blood cells.
2. What determines a child’s sex?
- A. Presence of teratogens at the time of conception.
- B. Sex chromosome received from the mother.
- C. Presence of teratogens at the time of ovulation.
- D. Sex chromosome received from the father.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the sex chromosome received from the father. The father contributes either an X or Y chromosome, which determines the child's sex. This occurs at the moment of fertilization when the sperm carrying either an X (resulting in a female) or Y (resulting in a male) chromosome fertilizes the egg. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the presence of teratogens at the time of conception or ovulation does not determine the child's sex. While the sex chromosome received from the mother is important, it is the father's contribution that ultimately determines the child's sex.
3. Which neonatal complications are associated with hypertension in the mother?
- A. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and prematurity.
- B. Seizures and cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. Hepatic or renal dysfunction.
- D. Placental abruption and DIC.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neonatal complications associated with maternal hypertension are primarily due to placental insufficiency. The correct answer is A, which includes Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR) and prematurity. These complications arise from inadequate blood flow to the fetus, leading to growth restriction and premature birth. Choices B, seizures, and cerebral hemorrhage are more commonly maternal complications rather than neonatal ones. Choice C, hepatic or renal dysfunction, pertains to maternal complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy, not neonatal issues. Choice D, placental abruption, and Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) are conditions linked to maternal morbidity and mortality, not neonatal complications.
4. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:
- A. contains 46 chromosomes.
- B. contains two X chromosomes.
- C. is significantly larger than an egg cell.
- D. contains both an X and a Y chromosome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.
5. A client at 38 weeks of gestation has a prescription for intravaginal misoprostol. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. “You will need to stay in a side-lying position for 30 minutes after each dose.”
- B. “You will receive an IV infusion of oxytocin 1 hour after your last dose.”
- C. “You will receive a magnesium supplement immediately following therapy.”
- D. “You will need to have a full bladder before the therapy begins.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Instructing the client to stay in a side-lying position after receiving misoprostol intravaginally is essential. This position helps keep the medication in place, allowing for better absorption. Choice B is incorrect because oxytocin administration is not typically indicated after misoprostol use. Choice C is incorrect as magnesium supplementation is not part of the standard protocol for misoprostol administration. Choice D is incorrect as having a full bladder is not necessary before initiating misoprostol therapy.
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