in reviewing the assessment data of a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus the nurse expects which of the following after a water deprivation
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1. In reviewing the assessment data of a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects which of the following after a water deprivation test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a water deprivation test in a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse would expect the urine specific gravity to remain unchanged. This occurs because in diabetes insipidus, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, leading to a low urine specific gravity even after water deprivation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased edema and weight gain are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Rapid protein excretion is not directly related to the condition, and decreased blood potassium is not a common outcome of a water deprivation test for diabetes insipidus.

2. The RN is making a home visit to a female client with end-stage heart disease. She has a living will and states she will never go back to the hospital. During the visit, the RN notes that the client is pale and SOB while speaking. The RN discovers 3+ edema in both ankles and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Which intervention should the RN implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a peripheral O2 saturation reading is the priority intervention in this scenario. It helps assess the client's oxygenation status quickly, which is crucial in a client with signs of respiratory distress, such as shortness of breath and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Ordering a chest X-ray (Choice A) may be necessary later but does not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Obtaining an order for a complete blood count (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Instructing the patient to stay in bed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoxia and respiratory compromise.

3. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

4. While caring for a client with infective endocarditis, the nurse must be alert for signs of pulmonary embolism. Which of the following assessment findings suggests this complication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Dyspnea and cough.' Pulmonary embolism often presents with a sudden onset of dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and cough, which are due to the obstruction of blood flow in the pulmonary arteries. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Positive Homan's sign is associated with deep vein thrombosis, fever and chills are nonspecific symptoms commonly seen in infective endocarditis, and sensory impairment is not typically indicative of pulmonary embolism.

5. The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old client in congestive heart failure. Which finding suggests that digitalis levels should be reviewed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme fatigue can be a sign of digitalis toxicity, especially in older adults, and warrants a review of the client's medication levels and potential adjustment. Increased appetite, intense itching, and constipation are not typically associated with digitalis toxicity and do not directly indicate a need for a review of digitalis levels.

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