in reviewing the assessment data of a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus the nurse expects which of the following after a water deprivation
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Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. In reviewing the assessment data of a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects which of the following after a water deprivation test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a water deprivation test in a client suspected of having diabetes insipidus, the nurse would expect the urine specific gravity to remain unchanged. This occurs because in diabetes insipidus, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, leading to a low urine specific gravity even after water deprivation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased edema and weight gain are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Rapid protein excretion is not directly related to the condition, and decreased blood potassium is not a common outcome of a water deprivation test for diabetes insipidus.

2. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

3. The nurse is preparing an orientation class for new employees at an inner city clinic that serves a low-income population. Which information should the nurse include in the presentation to these new employees?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because addressing basic physiologic needs is crucial for low-income populations. Ensuring that basic needs such as food, shelter, and safety are met is essential for these clients to engage effectively in their healthcare. Choice A talks about transportation, which can be a barrier but may not be the major impediment. Choice C focuses on printed material and reading skills, which are important but not as fundamental as addressing basic physiologic needs. Choice D makes assumptions about client attendance based on compliance, which is not the most critical information to include in an orientation about serving a low-income population.

4. The nurse is assigned to a client with Parkinson's disease. Which findings would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Echolalia (repeating others' words) and a shuffling gait are common symptoms of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms result from the degeneration of the basal ganglia in the brain that controls movement and speech. Choice A is incorrect because non-intention tremors are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as muscle spasm and a bent-over posture are not classic manifestations of Parkinson's disease. Choice D is incorrect since intention tremors and jerky movement of the elbows are not characteristic of Parkinson's disease.

5. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of regular health screenings, this activity falls under which level of prevention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease early to prevent complications. Teaching about the importance of regular health screenings helps in early detection and intervention, which aligns with the goals of secondary prevention. Choice A, Primary prevention, involves actions to prevent the onset of a health condition. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing conditions to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid unnecessary interventions, over-medicalization, and the consequences of unnecessary treatment.

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