Nursing Elites

1. Several employees who have a 10-year or longer history of smoking ask the occupational nurse for assistance with smoking cessation. The RN develops a 2-month program that includes weekly group sessions on lifestyle changes and use of OTC products. Which measurement provides the best indication of the program's effectiveness?

• A. Encourage the employees to disclose if they have joined another smoking cessation group.
• B. Ask the employees to inform the group if they stop smoking and if they start back up again.
• C. Survey the employees about their smoking habits.
• D. Observe if the employees are smoking in the designated smoking areas.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Surveying the employees about their smoking habits provides measurable data on program effectiveness. By collecting data directly from the employees through surveys, the occupational nurse can track changes in smoking habits, frequency, and quantity of cigarettes smoked. This direct feedback allows for a more accurate assessment of the program's impact on smoking cessation. Choices A and B rely on self-disclosure and may not provide reliable or objective data. Choice D does not directly measure changes in smoking habits but rather observes behavior in designated areas, which may not reflect overall smoking cessation progress.

2. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

3. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

• A. Compulsive behavior
• B. Sense of impending doom
• C. Fear of flying
• D. Predictable episodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

4. The client with acute hypocalcemia is admitted to the unit. Nursing action should include:

• A. Implement seizure precautions
• B. Assess for hypoglycemia
• C. Monitor for visual changes
• D. Observe for muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for a client with acute hypocalcemia is to implement seizure precautions. Hypocalcemia can lead to tetany and seizures due to neuromuscular irritability. Assessing for hypoglycemia (choice B) is not directly related to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for visual changes (choice C) is more indicative of conditions like hyperglycemia or retinal disorders. Observing for muscle weakness (choice D) is a common symptom of hypocalcemia but does not address the immediate risk of seizures, which is why implementing seizure precautions is the priority nursing action.

5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving erythropoietin (Epogen). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Erythropoietin can lead to hypertension as a side effect due to its stimulation of red blood cell production, which can increase blood viscosity. This can result in elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypoglycemia is not a common side effect of erythropoietin. Hyperkalemia is more commonly associated with renal failure rather than erythropoietin use. Hypocalcemia is not a typical side effect of erythropoietin administration.

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